Today’s IBPS SO IT Quiz based on-Networking and other important topics. Mains examination of IBPS SO is going to take place on 25th January 2020. So, Student, there is very few days left for the mains examination. So, Follow the study plan and clear your concept.

Q1. The purpose of the _______ is to provide flow and error control for the upper-layer protocols that actually demand these services.
(a) MAC
(b) LLC
(c) LLU
(d) none of the above
(e) NIC

Q2. The DNS maps the IP address to which of the following?
(a) A binary address as strings
(b) An alphanumeric address
(c) A hierarchy of domain names
(d) A hexadecimal address
(e) None of these

Q3. The network 198.78.41.0 is related to which IPv4 class?
(a) Class A network
(b) Class B network
(c) Class C network
(d) Class D network
(e) None of these

Q4. Which one of the following protocols is NOT used to resolve one form of address to another one?
(a) DNS
(b) ARP
(c) DHCP
(d) RARP
(e) Both (a) and (b)

Q5. In a compiler, keywords of a language are recognized during which phase?
(a) parsing of the program
(b) the code generation
(c) the lexical analysis of the program
(d) dataflow analysis
(e) None of these

Q6. Which operation is used to extract specified columns from a table?
(a) Project
(b) Join
(c) Extract
(d) Substitute
(e) None of these

Q7. Which of the following protocol provides confidentiality and authentication for an e-mail?
(a) PGP
(b) SMTP
(c) TELNET
(d) FTP
(e) DNS

Q8. Which of the following is not correct for virtual function in C++?
(a) Must be declared in public section of class.
(b) Virtual function can be static.
(c) Virtual function should be accessed using pointers.
(d) Virtual function is defined in base class.
(e) None of these

Q9. Which of the following, in C++, is inherited in a derived class from base class?
(a) constructor
(b) destructor
(c) data members
(d) virtual methods
(e) None of these

Q10.Which operator allows to specify multiple values in a WHERE clause?
(a)ORDER BY
(b)IN
(c)SORT
(d)LIKE
(e)BETWEEN

Solutions

S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. “Media Access Control Address,” and no, it is not related Apple Macintosh computers. A MAC address is a hardware identification number that uniquely identifies each device on a network.

S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. DNS maps the IP addresses into a hierarchy of domain names. DNS root zone is the highest level in the DNS hierarchy tree. The root zone contains the following: 1) Organizational hierarchy such as .com, .net, .org, gov 2) Geographic hierarchy such as .uk, .fr, .in.

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. In classful addressing, the range of first octet should be between one of the following:
CLASS A- 0 to 127
CLASS B – 128 to 191
CLASS C – 192 to 223
CLASS D- 224 to 239
CLASS E- 240 to 255
Given IP address = 198.78.41.0 So, it is a class C address.

S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. DNS converts domains to IP, ARP converts IP to MAC, RARP converts MAC to IP.
So, all these three protocols are used to resolve one form of address to another one. But DHCP is used to assign IP dynamically which means- it doesn’t resolve addresses.

S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. Lexical analysis is the process of converting a sequence of characters into a sequence of tokens.
S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. Projection (π) Projection is used to project required column data from a relation.

S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) Pretty Good Privacy or PGP is a popular program used to encrypt and decrypt email over the Internet, as well as authenticate messages with digital signatures and encrypted stored files.

S8. Ans.(b)
Sol. Virtual function is can’t be static in C++.

S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. Data members in C++ is inherited in a derived class from base class. Constructor is a member function of a class which initializes objects of a class. In C++, Constructor is automatically called when object (instance of class) create. It is special member function of the class. Destructor is a member function which destructs or deletes an object. Virtual methods is a method which is redefined(Over-ridden) in derived class.

S10. Ans.(b)
Sol. The IN operator allows you to specify multiple values in a WHERE clause.

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Aiming to crack IBPS SO 2019 Recruitment? Then don’t wait to start your preparation for IT Officer Professional Knowledge Exam. The syllabus of IBPS SO IT Officer Mains is vast as it includes all major subjects of professional knowledge like DBMS, Programming Languages, Hardware and Software, OOPS, Networking, Computer Security & more. To help you cover all of this in the limited time we have published the IBPS SO IT Officer Mains Study Plan. Take a test of professional knowledge with this quiz for IBPS SO 2019 IT Officer Mains Exam:

Q1.Which is the following message denotes the request page has moved temporarily to a new URL?
(a) 202 Accepted
(b) 201 created
(c) 301 Moved Permanently
(d) 302 Found
(e) None of these

Q2. <UL> … </UL> tag is used to ________
(a) display the numbered list
(b) underline the text
(c) display the bulleted list
(d) bold the text
(e) None of these

Q3. What is the correct syntax in HTML for creating a link on a webpage?
(a) <a href=”url”>link text</a>
(b) <b href=”url”>link text</b>
(c) <b src=”url”>link text</b>
(d) <a alt=”url”>link text</a>
(e) None of these

Q4.Which of the following is TRUE only of XML but NOT HTML?
(a) It is derived from SGML
(b) It describes content and layout
(c) It allows user defined tags
(d) It is restricted only to be used with web browsers
(e) None of these

Q5. Choose the most appropriate HTML tag in the following to create an ordered list:
(a) < dl >
(b) < ul >
(c) < li >
(d) < ol >
(e) <b>

Q6. In XML, DOCTYPE declaration specifies to include a reference to __________ file.
(a) Document type Definition
(b) Document type declaration
(c) Document transfer definition
(d) Document type language
(e) None of these

Q7. Which of the following is best known service model in cloud computing?
(a) SaaS
(b) IaaS
(c) PaaS
(d) All of the mentioned
(e) None of these

Q8. WPA provide security for which type of connection?
(a) Ethernet
(b) Wi-Fi
(c) Bluetooth
(d) Topology
(e) wired connection

Q9. Which one of the following is not a client server application?
(a) Internet chat
(b) Web browsing
(c) E-mail
(d) ping
(e) None of these

Q10. What do you call software that prevents certain Web pages from being displayed?
(a) Child-safe software
(b) Filtering software
(c) Spam blockers
(d) Underage software
(e) None of these

Solutions

S1. Ans.(d)

S2. Ans.(c)

S3. Ans.(a)

S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. SGML is standard generalized markup language. Both xml and html are derivative of SGML, both xml and html describe layout and content, both are restricted to be used with web browser but xml allows user defined tags but HTML-4 does not.

S5. Ans.(d)

S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. In XML, DOCTYPE declaration specifies to include a reference to document type definition file.

S7. Ans.(d)

S8. Ans.(b)
Sol. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) is a security standard for users of computing devices equipped with wireless internet connections.

S9. Ans.(d)
Sol. Ping is not a client server application. Ping is a computer network administration utility used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol (IP). In ping, there is no server that provides a service.

S10.Ans.(b)
Sol. A Web filtering software is a program that can screen an incoming Web page to determine whether some or all of it should not be displayed to the user. The filter checks the origin or content of a Web page against a set of rules provided by company or person who has installed the Web filter.

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Aiming to crack IBPS SO 2019 Recruitment? Then don’t wait to start your preparation for IT Officer Professional Knowledge Exam. The syllabus of IBPS SO IT Officer Mains is vast as it includes all major subjects of professional knowledge like DBMS, Programming Languages, Hardware and Software, OOPS, Networking, Computer Security & more. To help you cover all of this in the limited time we have published the IBPS SO IT Officer Mains Study Plan. Take a test of professional knowledge with this quiz for IBPS SO 2020 IT Officer Mains Exam:

Q1. Which of the following two characteristics always involve in Software risk?
(a) firefighting and crisis management
(b) known and unknown risks
(c) uncertainty and loss
(d) staffing and budget
(e) None of these

Q2. What types of errors are missed by black-box testing and can be uncovered by white-box testing?
(a) behavioral errors
(b) logic errors
(c) performance errors
(d) typographical errors
(e) both (b) and (d)

Q3. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are used to develop the system?
(a) Managerial risks
(b) Technology risks
(c) Estimation risks
(d) Organizational risks
(e) None of these

Q4. A Software Requirements Specification (SRS) document should avoid discussing which one of the following?
(a) User interface issues
(b) Non-functional requirements
(c) Design specification
(d) Interfaces with third party software
(e) None of these

Q5. Which is not a debugging technique?
(a) Core dumps
(b) Traces
(c) Print statement
(d) Regression testing
(e) None of these

Q6.Data Flow Diagrams is used in which of the following?
(a) Process modelling
(b) Modelling interaction in a real-time environment
(c) Cost estimation
(d) Data modelling
(e) Software testing

Q7. Which of the following is not a software testing technique?
(a) Acceptance testing
(b) Back Tracking
(c) Regression testing
(d) Integration testing
(e) All are testing technique

Q8. which type of testing technique requires devising test cases to exercise the internal logic of a software module?
(a) behavioral testing
(b) black-box testing
(c) grey-box testing
(d) white-box testing
(e) None of these

Q9. Which of the following is not a valid goal of requirement analysis and specification phase?
(a) Fully understand user requirement.
(b) Remove inconsistencies from user requirement.
(c) Produce system design based on user requirements.
(d) Properly record user requirements in SRS document
(e) None of the above

Q10.Which of the following is not defined in a good Software Requirement Specification (SRS) document?
(a) Functional Requirement.
(b) Nonfunctional Requirement.
(c) Goals of implementation.
(d) Algorithm for software implementation.
(e) None of these

Solutions

S1. Ans.(c)

S2. Ans.(e)
Sol. Black Box Testing is a software testing method in which the internal structure/ design/ implementation of the item being tested is NOT known to the tester. White Box Testing is a software testing method in which the internal structure/ design/ implementation of the item being tested is known to the tester.

S3. Ans.(b)
Sol. The risks associated with technology might affect the product development.

S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. A software requirements specification (SRS) is a description of a software system to be developed, laying out functional and non-functional requirements, and may include a set of use cases that describe interactions the users will have with the software. (Source Wiki) Design Specification should not be part of SRS.

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. Debugging is a systematic process of spotting and fixing the number of bugs, or defects, in a piece of software so that the software is behaving as expected. There are different types of debugging technique- Print debugging, Remote debugging, Communication based debugging, Memory-dump debugging (often referred to as core dump), Replay debugging, Logfile debugging.

S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. Data flow diagrams are used by information technology professionals and systems analysts to document and show users how data moves between different processes in a system.

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. Back Tracking is a debugging technique, It is a quite popular approach of debugging which is used effectively in case of small applications. The process starts from the site where a particular symptom gets detected, from there on backward tracing is done across the entire source code till we are able to lay our hands on the site being the cause. Unfortunately, as the number of source lines increases, the number of potential backward paths may become unmanageably large.

S8. Ans.(d)
Sol. White box testing is a testing technique which evaluates the code and the internal structure of a program.

S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. The goal of the requirements analysis and specification phase is to clearly understand customer requirements and to systematically organize these requirements in a specification document.

S10. Ans.(d)
Sol. A software requirements specification (SRS) is a description of a software system to be developed. It lays out functional and non-functional requirements and may include a set of use cases that describe user interactions that the software must provide.

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Aiming to crack IBPS SO 2019 Recruitment? Then don’t wait to start your preparation for IT Officer Professional Knowledge Exam. The syllabus of IBPS SO IT Officer Mains is vast as it includes all major subjects of professional knowledge like DBMS, Programming Languages, Hardware and Software, OOPS, Networking, Computer Security & more. To help you cover all of this in the limited time we have published the IBPS SO IT Officer Mains Study Plan. Take a test of professional knowledge with this quiz for IBPS SO 2019 IT Officer Mains Exam:

Q1. Time quantum is defined in which scheduling algorithm?
(a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
(b) round robin scheduling algorithm
(c) priority scheduling algorithm
(d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm
(e) None of these

Q2. Which type of operating system are required to complete a critical task within a guaranteed amount of time?
(a) Real Time Operating Systems
(b) Multi-Tasking Operating Systems
(c) Distributed Operating Systems
(d) Batch operating system
(e) None of the above

Q3. What is Response time in operating system?
(a) the total time taken from the submission time till the completion time
(b) the total time taken from the submission time till the first response is produced
(c) the total time taken from submission time till the response is output
(e) total completion time
(d) none of the mentioned

Q4.In UNIX. “cat” command is used which of the following purpose?
(a) Delete file
(b) modify file
(c) rename file
(d) display file content
(e) None of these

Q5. In FIFO page replacement algorithm, when a page must be replaced:
(a) oldest page is chosen
(b) newest page is chosen
(c) random page is chosen
(d) none of the mentioned
(e) Both (a) and (b)

Q6. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU first?
(a) first-in, first-out scheduling
(b) shortest job scheduling
(c) priority scheduling
(d) Simplest scheduling
(e) None of these

Q7. For Mutual exclusion to prevail in the system :
(a) at least one resource must be held in a non sharable mode
(b) the processor must be a uniprocessor rather than a multiprocessor
(c) there must be at least one resource in a sharable mode
(d) all of the mentioned
(e) None of these

Q8. Which of the following is NOT true of deadlock prevention and deadlock avoidance schemes?
(a) In deadlock prevention, the request for resources is always granted if the resulting state is safe
(b) In deadlock avoidance, the request for resources is always granted if the result state is safe
(c) Deadlock avoidance is less restrictive than deadlock prevention
(d) Deadlock avoidance requires knowledge of resource requirements a priori
(e) All are true

Q9.What is a critical section in a program segment?
(a) which should run in a certain specified amount of time
(b) which avoids deadlocks
(c) where shared resources are accessed
(d) which must be enclosed by a pair of semaphore operations, P and V
(e) None of these

Q10.Which of the following UNIX command is used to make directory?
(a) rmdir
(b) mkdir
(c) nkdir
(d) newdir
(e) dpkg

SOLUTION:

S1. Ans. (b)
Sol. In Round Robin Scheduling fixed time is allotted to each process, called quantum, for execution. Once a process is executed for given time period that process is preempted, and other process executes for given time period.

S2. Ans.(a)
Sol. A real-time operating system (RTOS) is an operating system (OS) intended to serve real-time applications that process data as it comes in, typically without buffer delays. Processing time requirements (including any OS delay) are measured in tenths of seconds or shorter increments of time.

S3. Ans.(b)
Sol. Response time is the time of submission to the time the first response is produced.

S4. Ans.(d)

S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. FIFO is the simplest page replacement algorithm. In this algorithm, operating system keeps track of all pages in the memory in a queue, oldest page is in the front of the queue. When a page needs to be replaced page in the front of the queue is selected for removal.

S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. First in, first out (FIFO), also known as first come, first served (FCFS), is the simplest scheduling algorithm. FIFO simply queues processes in the order that they arrive in the ready queue. In this, the process that comes first will be executed first and next process starts only after the previous gets fully executed.

S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. If another process requests that resource (non – shareable resource), the requesting process must be delayed until the resource has been released.

S8. Ans.(a)
Sol. Deadlock Prevention: Deadlocks can be prevented by preventing at least one of the four required conditions: Mutual Exclusion, Hold and Wait, No Pre-emption, Circular Wait.

S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. A Critical Section is a code segment that accesses shared variables and has to be executed as an atomic action. It means that in a group of cooperating processes, at a given point of time, only one process must be executing its critical section.

S10. Ans.(b)

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Aiming to crack IBPS SO 2019 Recruitment? Then don’t wait to start your preparation for IT Officer Professional Knowledge Exam. The syllabus of IBPS SO IT Officer Mains is vast as it includes all major subjects of professional knowledge like DBMS, Programming Languages, Hardware and Software, OOPS, Networking, Computer Security & more. To help you cover all of this in the limited time we have published the IBPS SO IT Officer Mains Study Plan. Take a test of professional knowledge with this quiz for IBPS SO 2019 IT Officer Mains Exam:

Q1. What is the name of network topology in which there are bidirectional links between each possible node?
(a) Star
(b) Mesh
(c) Ring
(d) Bus
(e) None of these

Q2. How many classes are there in IPV4 addresses?
(a) 7
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
(e) 3

Q3. Which of the following device assigns IP address to devices connected to a network that uses TCP/IP?
(a) DHCP Server
(b) NIC
(c) Gateway
(d) Hub
(e) Switch

Q4. Which of the following device takes data sent from one network device and forwards it to the destination node based on the MAC address?
(a) Hub
(b) Switch
(c) Gateway
(d) Modem
(e) Repeater

Q5. Which of the following functionalities must be implemented by a transport protocol over and above the network protocol?
(a) Recovery from packet losses
(b) Detection of duplicate packets
(c) Packet delivery in the correct order
(d) End to end connectivity
(e) Provide authentication of packets

Q6. Which protocol uses port 23?
(a) FTP
(b) SMTP
(c) Telnet
(d) HTTP
(e) DNS

Q7.What is the physical address of a network interface card?
(a) NIC
(b) MAC
(c) IP
(d) ARP
(e) SMTP

Q8.In a class B IP address, which two octets are reserved for the host?
(a) First and Second
(b) Second and Fourth
(c) Second and Third
(d)Third and Fourth
(e) None of these

Q9.What are the characteristics of TCP?
(a) Connection-oriented, error-checking, reliable
(b) Connectionless, no error-checking, unreliable
(c) Connection-oriented, error-checking, unreliable
(d) Connectionless, error-checking, reliable
(e) Connection-oriented, no error-checking, reliable

Q10.What would UDP be used for?
(a) File sharing
(b) Downloading
(c) E-mail
(d) VoIP
(e) None of these

Solutions:

S1. Ans.(c)

S2. Ans.(b)

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. A DHCP Server is a network server that automatically provides and assigns IP addresses, default gateways and other network parameters to client devices. It relies on the standard protocol known as Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol or DHCP to respond to broadcast queries by clients.

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. Switch is a unicasting device that sends data to a particular device according to its MAC address. Switch include memory to store the MAC address of the connected devices.

S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. Packet delivery in the correct order. TCP and UDP are the transport layer protocols. Removes form packet losses, Detection of duplicate packets and end to end connectivity are the responsibilities of TCP but not UDP. Packet delivery in the correct order is must for both TCP and UDP.

S6. Ans.(c)

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. A media access control address (MAC address) of a device is a unique identifier assigned to a network interface controller (NIC) for communications at the data link layer of a network segment. MAC addresses are used as a network address for most IEEE 802 network technologies, including Ethernet, Wi-Fi and Bluetooth.

S8. Ans.(d)

S9. Ans.(a)
Sol. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is considered as a reliable protocol. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is responsible for breaking up the message (Data from application layer) into TCP Segments and reassembling them at the receiving side. It is not sure that the data reaching at the receiving device is in the same order as the sending side, because of the problems in network or different paths packets flow to the destination. TCP is responsible for keeping the unordered segments in the right order. TCP assures a reliable delivery by resending anything that gets lost while traveling the network.

S10. Ans.(d)
Sol. UDP is connectionless, which means that data packets can be sent without warning, preparation, or negotiation. There’s no handshake or setup, just packets of data. UDP also lacks any kind of error control. Not only can packets be delivered in an incorrect order, but they can also get completely left out. UDP is meant for applications where you are more concerned with keeping the stream of information going than making sure you receive every single packet. This makes UDP ideal for real-time services such as Voice over IP.

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Professional Knowledge Questions for IBPS SO IT Mains 2017

Dear Aspirants,

Prepare Professional Knowledge Questions for IT Officer Mains Examination. Solve these questions to test your knowledge and to prepare for SO IT Mains Exam. This quiz contains a set of 10 questions from various chapters or subjects like Networking, DBMS, Information Security, Data Structure, Computer Hardware and Software that are important for IT Officer Mains Exam.

Q1. Identify the function which the following piece of code performs?


public void func(Tree root)
{
System.out.println(root.data());
func(root.left());
func(root.right());
}

(a) Preorder traversal
(b) Inorder traversal
(c) Postorder traversal
(d) Level order traversal
(e) Outorder traversal

Q2. The page table contains:
(a) base address of each page in physical memory
(b) page offset
(c) page size
(d) page bit
(e) data of each page

Q3. TELNET, FTP, SMTP, Protocols fall in the following layer of OSI reference model.
(a) Transport Layer
(b) Internet Layer
(c) Network Layer
(d) Application Layer
(e) Presentation Layer

Q4. The advantage of dynamic loading is that:
(a) A used routine is used multiple times
(b) An unused routine is never loaded
(c) CPU utilization increases
(d) All of the mentioned
(e) None of the mentioned

Q5. A memory buffer used to accommodate a speed differential is called _______.
(a) stack pointer
(b) cache
(c) accumulator
(d) disk buffer
(e) fragment

Q6. Which of the following is not a guided transmission line?
(a) Twisted Pair
(b) Coaxial Cable
(c) Optical Fiber
(d) Laser Beam
(e) Both (a) and (b)

Q7. What is the best-case complexity in building a heap?
(a) O(nlogn)
(b) O(n2)
(c) O(n*longn *logn)
(d) O(n)
(e) O(n*m)

Q8. The base register is also known as the:
(a) basic register
(b) regular register
(c) index register
(d) deallocation register
(e) memory address register

Q9. Suppose a binary tree is constructed with n nodes, such that each node has exactly either zero or two children. The maximum height of the tree will be?
(a)(n+1)/2
(b)(n-1)/2
(c)n/2 -1
(d)(n+1)/2 -1
(e) n

Q10. Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery?
(a) network layer
(b) transport layer
(c) session layer
(d) data link layer
(e) application layer

To prepare Professional Knowledge for IT Officer, you can get IT Officer Handbook or Video Course by Adda247. The Book is divided into modules that incorporate all the important topics of Networking, DBMS, Web Technology, Operating System, Data Structure, Computer Organization and Microprocessor, Software Engineering and much more.  And you’ll not only get the study material framed in modules, exercises and Questionnaire for practice but also Video Solution for Practice Sets.