300 Most Important GA Questions For IBPS PO Mains Exam 2026

The 300 Most Important GA Questions for IBPS PO Mains Exam 2026 have been compiled to help candidates revise the important areas of General Awareness, Banking Awareness, Economy, Financial Awareness, and current affairs in a focused manner. As the General/Economy/Banking Awareness section is an important part of the IBPS PO Mains examination, candidates should prepare this section with regular revision and practice.

Most Important GA Questions For IBPS PO Mains Exam 2026

To make revision easier, we have provided a PDF containing 300 important GA questions that candidates can download and practise before the examination. The questions have been selected to cover important banking and financial terms, government schemes, economic developments, RBI-related topics, important appointments, reports, awards, and other relevant current affairs.

300 Most Important GA Questions For IBPS PO Mains 2026 PDF

Candidates preparing for the IBPS PO Mains Exam 2026 can use the 300 Most Important GA Questions PDF for quick revision. Instead of going through multiple sources at the last moment, aspirants can use this PDF to revise important questions in one place.

Download the 300 Most Important GA Questions For IBPS PO Mains 2026 PDF

What Does The 300 GA Questions PDF Cover?

The PDF has been prepared around the major areas that candidates should revise for the IBPS PO Mains General Awareness section. It includes questions related to:

  • Banking Awareness
  • RBI and Monetary Policy
  • Financial Awareness
  • Economy and Economic Developments
  • Government Schemes and Initiatives
  • Banking and Financial Institutions
  • Important Reports and Indices
  • Appointments and Resignations
  • Awards and Honours
  • National and International Current Affairs
  • Important Summits and Conferences
  • Business and Corporate Affairs
  • Digital Banking and Financial Technology
  • Important Banking Terms
  • RBI Circulars and Recent Banking Updates

How To Use The 300 GA Questions PDF?

Candidates should avoid simply reading the questions and answers. A better approach is to first attempt each question without looking at the answer and then check the correct response.

  • Attempt the questions without checking the answers.
  • Mark the questions answered incorrectly or guessed.
  • Revise the concepts behind the incorrect answers.
  • Re-attempt the questions after a gap of one or two days.
  • Revise important facts again before the IBPS PO Mains Exam.

IBPS PO Mains GA Preparation Strategy

A focused revision strategy can make the GA preparation more manageable. Candidates should divide their revision into three broad areas: Current Affairs, Banking & Financial Awareness, and Static Awareness.

  • Revise current affairs regularly rather than trying to cover everything at once.
  • Give special attention to banking and financial news.
  • Keep a separate list of important RBI updates and banking terms.
  • Revise government schemes along with their objectives and ministries.
  • Practise questions after completing each revision cycle.
  • Revisit incorrect questions multiple times before the exam.
  • Use the 300 GA Questions PDF for final quick revision.

IBPS PO Prelims Cut Off 2026 Out, Check Category Qualifying Marks

The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has published the IBPS PO Prelims Cut Off 2026 on 29 September 2026. The IBPS PO Prelims Cut Off were conducted on 22 and 23 August 2026 and candidates can now refer to the released cut-off along with their result to understand their qualifying status.

The cut-off marks indicate the minimum scores required by candidates to qualify for the next stage after appearing in the Probationary Officer/Management Trainee (PO/MT-XVI) prelims Exam.

IBPS PO Prelims Cut Off 2026 Out

Candidates who appeared for the IBPS PO Prelims Exam 2026 can use the cut-off marks to understand the qualifying benchmark for the next phase. The prescribed marks vary according to category and are prepared after evaluating the overall performance of aspirants. Since the examination was conducted in multiple shifts, the scores are also adjusted through the normalization process before the final qualifying marks are decided.

IBPS PO Prelims Category Wise Cut Off 2026

The IBPS PO Prelims Cut Off 2026 Category Wise qualifying marks determine whether candidates belonging to different categories have cleared the Preliminary stage. IBPS considers the applicable reservation category while determining the qualifying benchmark.

Category Cut Off
General 49.68
OBC 49.68
EWS 49.68
SC 46.93
ST 40.72
HI 21.43
OC 31.47
VI 20.71
ID 21.28

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IBPS PO Prelims Sectional Cut Off 2026

Along with the overall qualifying requirement, candidates are required to meet the applicable sectional cut-off in the Preliminary Examination. The three sections of the IBPS PO Prelims are

  • English Language
  • Quantitative Aptitude
  • Reasoning Ability
Section UR/EWS OBC/SC/ST
English 10 7.00
Quantitative Aptitude 6.50 4.00
Reasoning 12.50 7.75

IBPS PO Prelims Exam Analysis 2026: Cut Off Context

The IBPS PO Prelims Exam Analysis 2026 helps candidates understand how the paper was structured and why the cut-off may vary. The overall performance across shifts can be assessed through the following points:

  • Overall Difficulty: The paper ranged from easy to moderate, with some questions requiring more time.
  • Shift Variation: The difficulty level differed slightly between shifts due to changes in the questions asked.
  • Section-Wise Level: English Language, Quantitative Aptitude and Reasoning Ability had a mix of straightforward and moderate questions.
  • Good Attempts: The number of safe attempts varied depending on the difficulty level of the particular shift.
  • Cut-Off Impact: Candidate performance, shift difficulty and normalization are important factors while determining the final cut-off.

How Exam Difficulty Affects IBPS PO Prelims Cut Off 2026

The level of the question paper can have a direct bearing on the qualifying marks. However, the cut-off is not decided on difficulty alone, as the performance of candidates and shift-wise score adjustment also play an important role.

  • Paper Level: A tougher paper can result in comparatively lower qualifying marks, while an easier paper may lead to higher competition.
  • Candidate Performance: The overall marks scored by candidates are considered while establishing the qualifying benchmark.
  • Shift Differences: Small variations in difficulty between different shifts are taken into account before scores are compared.
  • Normalization: Scores are adjusted to maintain fairness among candidates who appeared in different shifts.
  • Vacancy Factor: The number of available posts also forms part of the overall cut-off determination process.
  • Attempts vs Cut-Off: A high number of attempts alone does not confirm qualification, as accuracy and the final normalized score also matter.

How To Check IBPS PO Prelims Cut Off 2026

Candidates can check their IBPS PO Prelims result and qualifying details by following the steps below:

  1. Visit the official IBPS website.
  2. Go to the CRP PO/MT section.
  3. Open the IBPS PO/MT-XVI Preliminary Examination result link.
  4. Enter the Registration Number/Roll Number.
  5. Enter the Password/Date of Birth.
  6. Submit the login details.
  7. Check the result and qualifying status.
  8. Download the scorecard for future reference.

IBPS PO Mains Exam 2026

Candidates who clear the Preliminary Examination will appear for the IBPS PO Mains Exam 2026, scheduled for 4 October 2026. The Mains call letter is available from 24 September to 4 October 2026. Qualified candidates should now focus on their Mains preparation and avoid waiting for further cut-off updates.

Factors Affecting IBPS PO Cut Off 2026

Several factors can influence the IBPS PO Prelims Cut Off 2026, including:

  • Difficulty level of the examination
  • Number of candidates appearing
  • Number of vacancies
  • Overall performance of candidates
  • Category-wise competition
  • Section-wise performance
  • Shift-wise variation
  • Normalization of scores

IBPS PO Score Card & Answer Key

IBPS PO Prelims 2026 Purpose What Candidates Can Check
Score Card Shows the candidate’s actual performance Section-wise marks, total score and qualifying status
Cut Off Indicates the minimum qualifying marks Category-wise and overall qualifying benchmark
Answer Key Helps verify answers attempted in the exam Questions, correct answers and performance estimation

SAIL Young Professional Recruitment 2026 Notification Out for 11 Vacancies, Apply Online Link

Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) has released the SAIL Young Professional Recruitment 2026 Notification for the engagement of Young Professionals in its Central Marketing Organisation (CMO) and Environment Management Division (EMD). A total of 11 Young Professional vacancies have been announced for different functional areas, including Marketing, C&IT, Finance, Statutory Compliance, and Environment Management.

SAIL Young Professional Recruitment 2026

The SAIL Young Professional Recruitment 2026 application process has commenced on 30 September 2026. Interested and eligible candidates can submit their applications online through the SAIL Careers website. The last date to apply online is 15 October 2026. Candidates should check the post-wise educational qualification, age limit, and required post-qualification experience before applying for the desired engagement.

SAIL Recruitment 2026: Overview

SAIL has invited applications from qualified professionals for Young Professional engagements on a fixed-term basis. The recruitment covers 11 positions across different divisions, with the engagement grades ranging from YP-1 to YP-3.

Particulars Details
Organization Steel Authority of India Limited
Recruitment SAIL Young Professional Recruitment 2026
Advertisement No. CMO/YP/2026-01
Post Young Professional
Total Vacancies 11
Application Mode Online
Application Start Date 30 September 2026
Last Date to Apply 15 October 2026
Minimum Age 23 years
Maximum Age 35 to 42 years, as per engagement
Job Location Kolkata
Application Fee ₹500
Engagement Basis Contract for Service

Download SAIL Young Professional Recruitment 2026 Notification PDF

SAIL has released the official SAIL Young Professional Recruitment 2026 Notification PDF for the engagement of Young Professionals in various functional areas under its Central Marketing Organisation (CMO) and Environment Management Division (EMD). The notification contains complete details regarding post-wise vacancies, educational qualifications, work experience, age limit, remuneration, selection process, tenure, and the online application procedure. Candidates are advised to go through the official notification carefully before applying to ensure that they meet all the prescribed eligibility conditions.

SAIL Young Professional Recruitment 2026 Notification PDF

SAIL Young Professional Vacancy 2026

The SAIL Young Professional Vacancy 2026 has been announced for multiple specialised roles. All 11 engagements are based in Kolkata. Candidates can apply only after ensuring that they meet the eligibility conditions prescribed for the respective engagement code.

Division Engagement Grade Vacancy
Marketing Market Analyst YP-3 1
Marketing Business Development – Structural Hollow Sections YP-1 1
Marketing Business Development – Coated Steel Products YP-1 1
Marketing Business Development – Fabricated Steel Structures YP-1 1
C&IT SAP Functional Consultant YP-2 1
C&IT Full Stack Developer YP-2 1
C&IT SAP Technical Consultant YP-1 1
Finance GST & Tax Planning YP-2 1
Finance Receivables & Working Capital Management YP-1 1
Statutory Compliance New Labour Codes, Strategy & Workforce Analytics YP-1 1
Environment Management Environment Management Division YP-1 1
Total 11

SAIL Young Professional Recruitment 2026 Apply Link

The SAIL Young Professional Recruitment 2026 online application link is available through the SAIL Careers website. Candidates can apply between 30 September and 15 October 2026.

SAIL Young Professional Apply Online

How to Apply for SAIL Young Professional Recruitment 2026?

Candidates who fulfil the eligibility criteria can apply online through the SAIL Careers website. No other mode of application will be accepted. Candidates can follow these steps to complete the SAIL Young Professional Recruitment 2026 Apply Online process:

  1. Visit the official SAIL Careers website.
  2. Open the Young Professional Recruitment 2026 advertisement.
  3. Read the eligibility conditions for the desired engagement carefully.
  4. Click on the relevant Apply/Login link.
  5. Complete the one-time registration if you are a new applicant.
  6. Login using the registered credentials.
  7. Enter the required personal, educational and professional details.
  8. Upload the photograph, signature and required documents.
  9. Review all the details carefully before final submission.
  10. Pay the applicable registration and processing fee.
  11. Submit the application form.
  12. Download and save the registration slip containing the Application ID for future reference.

SAIL Young Professional Recruitment 2026 Documents Required

Candidates should keep the required documents ready before starting the application process. The following documents are required to be uploaded as applicable:

  • Matriculation certificate showing date of birth
  • Class 12 certificate
  • Relevant degree certificates
  • MBA/M.E./M.Tech/PhD certificates, wherever applicable
  • Experience certificate(s)
  • NOC from the present employer, wherever applicable
  • Photo Identity Proof
  • Address Proof
  • CGPA/SGPA conversion certificate, if available

SAIL Young Professional Eligibility Criteria 2026

The eligibility criteria for SAIL Young Professional Recruitment 2026 are different for each engagement. Candidates must possess the prescribed qualification and relevant post-qualification experience for the position they are applying for.

The notification states that the essential qualifications should be regular/full-time qualifications from institutions recognised by the concerned authorities. The required work experience must also be from the organisations and sectors specified in the advertisement.

SAIL Young Professional Age Limit

Candidates must have completed 23 years of age to apply for the engagement. The upper age limit depends on the grade:

  • YP-1: 35 years
  • YP-2: 38 years
  • YP-3: 42 years

SAIL Young Professional Educational Qualification

The educational qualification varies according to the engagement. Some of the major requirements are as follows:

  • Marketing – Market Analyst: Candidates should have a B.E./B.Tech/Graduate degree along with an MBA in Marketing. A minimum of 10 years of relevant post-qualification experience is required.
  • Business Development – Structural Hollow Sections: Candidates should have a B.E./B.Tech, preferably in Mechanical/Civil Engineering, along with an MBA in Marketing. At least three years of relevant experience is required.
  • Business Development – Coated Steel Products: Candidates should have a B.E./B.Tech, preferably in Mechanical/Metallurgy, with at least three years of relevant experience.
  • Business Development – Fabricated Steel Structures: Candidates should have a B.E./B.Tech in Civil, Mechanical or Structural Engineering and at least three years of relevant experience.
  • SAP Functional Consultant: Candidates should have a B.E./B.Tech in Computer Science, Information Technology or a related engineering discipline, along with at least six years of post-qualification experience and experience in SAP implementation projects.
  • Full Stack Developer: Candidates should have a B.E./B.Tech in Computer Science, Information Technology or a related field, with at least six years of experience in full-stack application development.
  • SAP Technical Consultant: Candidates should have a B.E./B.Tech in Computer Science, Information Technology or a related field and at least three years of post-qualification experience.
  • GST & Tax Planning: Candidates should be qualified CA/CMA with at least six years of relevant experience.
  • Receivables & Working Capital Management: Candidates should be qualified CA/CMA with at least three years of relevant experience.
  • Statutory Compliance: Candidates should be graduates with an MBA in Personnel Management & Industrial Relations and have at least three years of relevant experience.
  • Environment Management: Candidates should have a B.E./B.Tech along with a postgraduate qualification in Environment Management and at least three years of relevant experience in areas such as decarbonisation, climate change, sustainability, CO₂ emission accounting or GHG assessment.

SAIL Young Professional Salary 2026

The SAIL Young Professional salary varies according to the engagement grade. Candidates selected under different grades will receive a consolidated monthly retainership fee.

Grade Monthly Retainership Fee
YP-1 ₹70,000
YP-2 ₹1,00,000
YP-3 ₹1,40,000

SAIL Young Professional Recruitment 2026 Application Fee

Candidates applying for the YP-1, YP-2 and YP-3 categories are required to pay a ₹500 registration and processing fee. The fee is to be paid online after completion of the application form. Candidates should note that the fee once paid will not be refunded.

SAIL Young Professional Recruitment 2026 Selection Process

  • The selection process will begin with scrutiny of applications received by the closing date. SAIL may introduce a shortlisting test if the number of applications received for an engagement is more than five times the number of available positions.
  • Depending on the requirement, the organisation may conduct a Computer-Based Test, Aptitude Test, General Management Test, Psychometric Test or another standard examination. Shortlisted candidates may then be called for a personal interaction/interview.
  • If fewer than five times the required number of applications are received, eligible candidates may be directly called for the personal interview.

SAIL Young Professional Recruitment 2026 Tenure

The initial engagement of a Young Professional will be for a period of up to three years from the date of joining. Subject to satisfactory performance and other conditions, the engagement may be extended by up to two additional years. The maximum period of engagement under this arrangement will not exceed five years. Candidates should also note that the engagement is purely temporary and contractual. It does not provide any right to regular appointment in SAIL.

Canara Bank Apprentice Recruitment 2026 Notification Out for 3500 Vacancies, Check Apply Online Link

Canara Bank has announced the Apprentice Recruitment 2026 for 3,500 Graduate Apprentice positions across various states of India. The apprenticeship will be for a duration of 12 months, and selected candidates will receive a monthly stipend of ₹16,650. The online application window is open from 1 October to 17 October 2026, and Canara Bank Apprentice Apply Online 2026 has been started today, 1 October 2026.

Canara Bank Apprentice Notification 2026 Out

Candidates applying for Canara Bank Apprentice Recruitment 2026 must first complete their registration and profile on the NATS portal before proceeding with the application on the bank’s official website. The selection process will be based on candidates’ 12th standard or Diploma marks, followed by document verification, a local language test, and a medical examination.

Canara Bank Apprentice Recruitment 2026: Overview

The Canara Bank Apprentice Recruitment 2026 provides an opportunity for graduates to undergo one year of practical training with the bank. Candidates can check the major details of the recruitment in the table below.

Particulars Details
Organisation Canara Bank
Post Graduate Apprentice
Total Seats 3,500
Training Duration 12 Months
Notification Release Date 25 September 2026
Application Start Date 1 October 2026
Last Date to Apply 17 October 2026
Age Limit 20 to 28 Years
Qualification Graduation in Any Discipline
Stipend ₹16,650 per Month
Selection Process Merit List, DV, Local Language Test & Medical Examination
Application Mode Online
Official Website canarabank.bank.in

Canara Bank Apprentice Vacancy 2026

A total of 3,500 Graduate Apprentice training seats have been announced under the Canara Bank Apprentice Recruitment 2026. The vacancies are distributed among different states and categories as per the applicable reservation rules.

Category Seats
UR 1,541
OBC 845
SC 553
EWS 335
ST 226
Total 3,500

Canara Bank Apprentice State-Wise Vacancy 2026

Candidates can apply for apprenticeship seats in only one state. District preferences can be selected as applicable. The major state-wise vacancies and local languages are given below:

State Seats Local Language
Karnataka 581 Kannada
Uttar Pradesh 409 Hindi/Urdu
Tamil Nadu 391 Tamil
Andhra Pradesh 247 Telugu/Urdu
Kerala 240 Malayalam
Maharashtra 205 Marathi
West Bengal 150 Bengali/Nepali
Telangana 134 Telugu/Urdu
Bihar 122 Hindi/Urdu
Haryana 114 Hindi/Punjabi
Madhya Pradesh 110 Hindi
Odisha 104 Odia

Canara Bank Apprentice Eligibility Criteria 2026

Candidates must fulfil the required age, education, marks, and local language conditions to apply.

Age Limit

Candidates should be 20 to 28 years as on 1 September 2026. Born between 2 September 1998 and 1 September 2006

  • SC/ST: 5 years relaxation
  • OBC-NCL: 3 years
  • PwBD: 10 years

Educational Qualification

Candidates must have a graduation degree in any discipline from a recognised university. The degree should have been completed between 1 January 2023 and 1 September 2026. They must also have:

  • General/OBC/EWS: 60% in 12th/Diploma
  • SC/ST/PwBD: 55% in 12th/Diploma
  • No rounding off of marks is allowed.

Local Language

  • Candidates must be able to read, write and speak the local language of the selected state.
  • Those who studied the required language in 10th or 12th may be exempted from the language test.
  • Candidates with previous apprenticeship training or 1 year or more of work experience after graduation are not eligible.

Canara Bank Apprentice Application Fee 2026

Candidates applying for the Canara Bank Apprentice Recruitment 2026 need to pay the applicable application fee/intimation charges while registering on the bank’s portal. The fee is non-refundable and includes GST. Category-wise application charges are given below.

Category Application Fee/Intimation Charges
SC/ST/PwBD NIL
All Others ₹500 (Including GST)

Who Cannot Apply for Canara Bank Apprentice Recruitment 2026?

Candidates should carefully check the restrictions before submitting the application. The following candidates are not eligible under the specified conditions:

  • Candidates who have already undergone apprenticeship training.
  • Candidates who have completed one year or more of work experience after graduation.
  • Candidates who are currently undergoing apprenticeship training.
  • Candidates who do not fulfil the prescribed graduation passing period.
  • Candidates who do not meet the required percentage criteria.

Canara Bank Apprentice Apply Online 2026

To apply for the Canara Bank Apprentice Recruitment 2026, candidates must first register on the NATS portal and complete their profile details. After completing the NATS registration, applicants can proceed to the Canara Bank recruitment portal and submit the application form. The application process is available from 1 October to 17 October 2026, and candidates should have their NATS Enrollment ID ready while applying.

Canara Bank Apprentice Apply Online 2026: Link Active

How to Apply for Canara Bank Apprentice 2026

Candidates can follow these simple steps to complete the application:

  • Visit the NATS portal and complete your registration.
  • Fill in all details and make sure your NATS profile is 100% complete.
  • Note down your NATS Enrollment ID.
  • Visit the official Canara Bank website and open the Recruitment/Careers section.
  • Select the Graduate Apprentice 2026 application link.
  • Enter your NATS Enrollment ID and other required details.
  • Fill out the application form and select the preferred state.
  • Upload the required photograph, signature and documents.
  • Pay the applicable application fee.
  • Submit the form and download the application and payment receipt for future reference.

Canara Bank Apprentice 2026: Documents Required

Candidates should keep all the necessary documents and scanned copies ready before starting the Canara Bank Apprentice application process. Having these details prepared can help avoid errors and delays while filling out the form.

Documents Required for Canara Bank Apprentice Application

  • NATS Enrollment ID: Required after completing the NATS registration and profile.
  • 10th/SSLC Marksheet: Keep it ready for entering the correct name and date of birth.
  • 12th/Diploma Marksheet: Required for entering marks or percentage details.
  • Graduation Marksheet and Degree Certificate: Candidates should keep their graduation records ready, including passing date and marks/CGPA details.
  • Category Certificate: SC/ST, OBC-NCL, EWS, or PwBD candidates should keep the relevant valid certificate ready.
  • Valid Photo ID: Aadhaar Card, PAN Card, Voter ID, Driving Licence, Passport, or another valid government-issued ID may be kept for reference.
  • Active Mobile Number and Email ID: These should remain active throughout the recruitment process for receiving important updates.

Scanned Documents Required for Upload

Candidates should also keep the required scanned images ready in the prescribed format and size before filling out the application form.

Document Format Size Key Requirement
Passport Photograph JPG/JPEG 20–50 KB Recent colour photograph with a light/white background
Signature JPG/JPEG 10–20 KB Signature in black ink on white paper
Left Thumb Impression JPG/JPEG 20–50 KB Clear impression on white paper
Handwritten Declaration JPG/JPEG 50–100 KB Written clearly in English on white paper

Canara Bank Apprentice 2026: Is There Any Exam?

No, there is no written examination for the Canara Bank Apprentice Recruitment 2026. Candidates will be shortlisted through a state-wise merit list prepared on the basis of marks obtained in the 12th Standard (HSC/10+2) or Diploma examination.

Canara Bank Apprentice Stipend 2026

Selected candidates will receive a total monthly stipend of ₹16,650 during the 12-month apprenticeship period. The stipend will consist of:

  • Canara Bank contribution: ₹10,500 per month
  • Government contribution through DBT: ₹6,150 per month

Canara Bank Apprentice Selection Process 2026

The selection will be based on a state-wise merit list prepared using 12th/Diploma marks. Shortlisted candidates will then go through:

  • Merit List: Based on 12th/Diploma percentage.
  • Document Verification & Language Test: Required documents and local language will be checked.
  • Medical Examination: Candidates must be declared medically fit.

Canara Bank Apprentice 2026: State Preference and Local Language

Candidates applying for the Canara Bank Apprentice Recruitment 2026 can choose only one state while submitting the application. Candidates may select their preferred district within the chosen state, wherever district-wise preference is provided.

  • Candidates should be able to read, write, speak, and understand the specified local language.
  • Candidates who have studied the required local language as a subject in 10th or 12th standard may be exempted from appearing in the language test.
  • Candidates should carefully select the state while applying, as the application is restricted to one state only.
  • The local language requirement may differ from one state to another, so candidates should check the prescribed language before submitting the application.
  • The language proficiency will be verified through the Local Language Test (LLT) wherever applicable.

IBPS PO Prelims Scorecard 2026 Out @ibps.in, Download Pre Marks PDF

IBPS PO Prelims Score Card 2026 has been made available by the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) on 29th September 2026. Candidates who appeared for the preliminary examination can now check their individual marks and performance details by logging in with their credentials. The score card allows aspirants to see the marks secured in each section along with their total score and qualifying status.

IBPS PO Prelims Score Card 2026 Out

Candidates can now check their performance in the IBPS PO Prelims Exam 2026 through the score card released by IBPS. The preliminary examination was held on 22 and 23 August 2026 as part of the recruitment process for 7,565 Probationary Officer/Management Trainee posts. Those who cleared this stage will proceed to the Mains examination, which is scheduled for 04 October 2026.

Note: For the first time, IBPS has provided candidates with the answer key and response sheet along with the IBPS PO Prelims Score Card, allowing them to review their attempted answers and verify their performance.

IBPS PO Pre Score Card 2026: Overview

Particulars Details
Exam Name IBPS PO/MT Prelims 2026
Conducting Body Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS)
Vacancy 7565
Score Card Status Released
Score Card Release Date 29 September 2026
IBPS PO Prelims Cut Off 2026 Released
Details Available Section-wise marks, overall marks and qualifying status
Login Credentials Registration/Roll Number and Password/Date of Birth
Mains Exam Date 04 October 2026
Official Website ibps.in

IBPS PO Score Card 2026 Download Link

The IBPS PO Score Card 2026 is now available on the official IBPS website. Candidates who appeared for the Prelims can check their individual marks and qualifying status by logging in with their Registration Number/Roll Number and Password/Date of Birth. After entering the required details, candidates can view and download their score card for future reference. The direct link to access the IBPS PO Score Card 2026 is provided below.

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How to Download the IBPS PO Pre Scorecard 2026 PDF?

  • Visit the official IBPS website.
  • Go to the CRP PO/MT section on the homepage.
  • Click on the link for IBPS PO Prelims Scorecard 2026.
  • Enter your Registration Number/Roll Number and password/date of Birth.
  • Submit the login details to access the score card.
  • Check your section-wise marks and overall score obtained in the Preliminary Examination.
  • Download and save the score card for future reference.
  • Take a printout of the score card, if required.

Details Mentioned on the IBPS PO Score Card 2026

The IBPS PO Prelims Score Card 2026 contains the candidate’s performance details and qualifying status. Candidates can check the following information:

  • Candidate’s Name
  • Registration/Roll Number
  • Section-wise Marks
  • Overall Marks Obtained
  • Maximum Marks
  • Section-wise Cut-Off
  • Overall Cut-Off
  • Qualifying Status
  • Examination Name and Year

How to Calculate Marks from the IBPS PO Score Card?

Candidates can check their section-wise and overall marks in the IBPS PO Prelims Score Card 2026. To understand the score, candidates should consider the marks awarded for correct answers and the negative marking applicable for incorrect responses.

  • Check the marks obtained in each section of the score card.
  • Add the section-wise marks to understand the overall marks.
  • For the raw score, 1 mark is awarded for each correct answer.
  • 0.25 marks are deducted for every incorrect answer.
  • Unattempted questions do not carry any marks or penalty.
  • The final marks displayed on the score card should be considered while checking the candidate’s performance against the sectional and overall cut-off.

What If I Forgot My IBPS PO Login Credentials?

Candidates who have forgotten their IBPS PO registration number, password or other login details can use the recovery options available on the IBPS portal. They should follow these steps:

  • Visit the official IBPS website and open the IBPS PO Score Card login page.
  • Use the Forgot Password or relevant recovery option, if available.
  • Enter the required details to verify your identity.
  • Check the registered email ID or mobile number for the recovery details.
  • Use the recovered credentials to log in and download the IBPS PO Prelims Score Card 2026.
  • Candidates should save their login details safely for future stages of the recruitment process.

How to Analyze IBPS PO Score Card for Mains Preparation?

The IBPS PO Prelims Score Card 2026 is more than just a record of marks; it can help candidates understand their preparation level before the IBPS PO Mains Examination scheduled for 04 October 2026. Candidates should analyze their score carefully to identify areas where they performed well and topics that need more attention.

  • Check Section-Wise Marks: Compare your marks in English Language, Quantitative Aptitude, and Reasoning Ability to identify your stronger and weaker sections.
  • Evaluate Accuracy: A high number of attempts with lower accuracy indicates that you need to focus on avoiding careless mistakes in Mains preparation.
  • Identify Weak Topics: Review the topics where you struggled and prioritize them during revision and practice.
  • Assess Your Overall Performance: Compare your overall score with the relevant cut-off to understand how comfortably you cleared the prelims.
  • Focus on Mains-Level Questions: Do not restrict preparation to Prelims-level concepts. Start practicing lengthy DI sets, advanced reasoning, banking awareness, and other Mains-oriented questions.
  • Improve Time Management: Analyze where you spent more time in Prelims and work on improving your speed through sectional tests and full-length Mains mocks.
  • Set a Mains Target: Use your Prelims performance as a baseline and set a realistic target score for the Mains examination.

IBPS PO Prelims Score Card vs Result: What Is the Difference?

The IBPS PO Prelims Result and Score Card serve different purposes. The result mainly confirms whether a candidate has qualified for the next stage, while the score card provides detailed marks.

  • IBPS PO Prelims Result: Shows the candidate’s qualifying status and whether they are shortlisted for the Mains Exam.
  • IBPS PO Prelims Score Card: Provides section-wise marks, total marks and cut-off details.
  • Result: Mainly helps candidates know whether they have cleared the Prelims stage.
  • Score Card: Helps candidates analyse their actual performance in the examination.
  • Candidates can use the score card to compare their section-wise and overall marks with the respective cut-offs.

Can Candidates Challenge the IBPS PO Score Card or Marks?

Candidates may have questions regarding the marks displayed on their IBPS PO Prelims Score Card 2026. The score card is prepared as per the prescribed evaluation process, and candidates should carefully check all the details after downloading it.

  • No Re-evaluation: Candidates generally cannot request rechecking or re-evaluation of their marks.
  • Check Details: Candidates should verify their section-wise marks, total score, and qualifying status.
  • Technical Issues: If the score card shows any technical error or candidates face difficulty while accessing it, they can contact IBPS through the official channels.
  • Keep a Copy: Candidates should download and save the score card for future reference.
  • Follow Official Updates: Any provision regarding discrepancies or objections will be communicated by IBPS through its official website.

Daily Current Affairs Quiz 1st October, 2026 for Banking & Competitive Exams

Daily Current Affairs: 1st October, 2026

 Q1. The Green Energy Corridor Phase-III (GEC-III) scheme has been approved with a total project outlay of ________, which includes a Central Financial Support of ________ aimed at keeping power costs down for end users.

(a) ₹1,36,378 crore; ₹50,000 crore

(b) ₹1,86,405 crore; ₹54,082 crore

(c) ₹2,00,000 crore; ₹60,000 crore

(d) ₹1,50,000 crore; ₹45,000 crore

(e) ₹1,86,405 crore; ₹36,378 crore

Answer: b

Solution:

  • The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, has approved the Green Energy Corridor Phase-III (GEC-III) scheme.
  • The scheme aims to strengthen India’s Intra-State Transmission System (InSTS) to facilitate the evacuation of up to 135 GW of renewable energy across States and Union Territories.
  • It also provides for deployment of 50 GWh of Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) at renewable energy developer/generator sites or other strategically important locations.
  • The BESS component will help address renewable energy intermittency, grid congestion, peak-hour curtailment and demand during non-solar hours.
  • The scheme is targeted for completion by FY 2032–33, with a total project outlay of ₹1,86,405 crore.
  • Of the total outlay, ₹1,36,378 crore is allocated for Intra-State Transmission Systems, while ₹50,000 crore is allocated for 50 GWh BESS.
  • The scheme involves Central Financial Support (CFS) of ₹54,082 crore, which will help offset intra-state transmission charges and keep power costs lower for consumers.
  • Greenfield InSTS projects will be implemented through Tariff Based Competitive Bidding (TBCB), while brownfield upgradation and network-strengthening works will follow the Cost Plus Basis (CPB).
  • State Transmission Utilities (STUs) will serve as the overall implementing agencies, while Transmission Service Providers (TSPs) will participate under TBCB through the Build-Own-Operate-Maintain (BOOM) model.
  • GEC-III will support India’s target of 900 GW installed non-fossil capacity by 2035, strengthen long-term energy security and promote sustainable growth by reducing the carbon footprint.
  • The scheme is also expected to generate direct and indirect employment in the power, manufacturing and construction sectors, along with skilled employment in BESS manufacturing, operation, maintenance and grid management.

Q2. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved the ITMS project for Delhi Police at an estimated cost of ________ to cover ________ identified traffic corridors in the National Capital.

(a) ₹1,500.00 crore; 30 corridors

(b) ₹1,789.52 crore; 42 corridors

(c) ₹2,100.25 crore; 50 corridors

(d) ₹1,250.75 crore; 25 corridors

(e) ₹1,789.52 crore; 60 corridors

Answer: b

Solution:

  • The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, has approved the implementation of the Intelligent Traffic Management System (ITMS) by the Delhi Police.
  • The project has an estimated cost of ₹1,789.52 crore, inclusive of taxes.
  • The ITMS will cover 42 identified traffic corridors across Delhi.
  • The project will be implemented in three phases over 24 months, followed by five years of operation and maintenance.
  • The system will use real-time traffic data, adaptive traffic signals, automated enforcement and integrated command-and-control systems to improve traffic management.
  • The initiative aims to make better use of Delhi’s existing road capacity by enabling traffic management to respond dynamically to actual road conditions.
  • Delhi has around 71 lakh active registered vehicles, while vehicular growth has significantly outpaced the expansion of road infrastructure.
  • The ITMS seeks to reduce dependence on fixed signal timings and manual intervention and promote technology-driven traffic regulation.
  • The project is part of broader efforts by the Central Government and Government of NCT of Delhi to improve traffic management, transport infrastructure and urban mobility in the National Capital.

Q3. Among the oilseeds and pulses revised under the Rabi Marketing Season 2027-28, Rapeseed & Mustard received an absolute MSP hike of ________, while Lentil (Masur) received an absolute hike of ________ per quintal.

(a) ₹675; ₹413

(b) ₹390; ₹136

(c) ₹413; ₹83

(d) ₹675; ₹390

(e) ₹413; ₹390

Answer: e

Solution:

  • The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, has approved an increase in the Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for all mandated Rabi crops for the Marketing Season 2027–28.
  • The increase aims to ensure remunerative prices for farmers for their produce.
  • The highest absolute increase in MSP has been announced for Safflower, at ₹675 per quintal.
  • Rapeseed & Mustard received the second-highest increase of ₹413 per quintal.
  • MSP for Lentil (Masur) has been increased by ₹390 per quintal.
  • MSP for Barley has been increased by ₹136 per quintal.
  • MSP for Gram has been increased by ₹83 per quintal.
  • MSP for Wheat has been increased by ₹25 per quintal.

Q4. The Ministry of Power notified the new Corporate Average Fuel Economy (CAFE-III) norms for passenger vehicles, coming into force from April 1, 2027. What is the target percentage improvement in overall fleet fuel efficiency mandated across its five-year implementation block (2027–28 to 2031–32)?

(a) ~12.5%

(b) ~14.2%

(c) ~16.7%

(d) ~18.9%

(e) ~21.3%

Answer: c

Solution:

  • The Ministry of Power, Government of India has notified new Corporate Average Fuel Economy (CAFE) Norms for passenger vehicles.
  • The new norms will come into effect from 1 April 2027 and remain applicable until 31 March 2032.
  • They will apply to new passenger vehicles manufactured or imported for sale in India.
  • The CAFE framework will progressively tighten fuel-efficiency targets year-on-year over the five-year period.
  • The fuel-consumption benchmark will improve from 3.996 litres/100 km in 2027–28 to 3.3273 litres/100 km in 2031–32, representing an improvement of around 16.7%.
  • The revised target line adopts a more balanced and weight-sensitive approach, with relatively softer targets for lighter vehicles and stricter fuel-efficiency requirements for heavier vehicles.
  • The reference weight has increased from 1,082 kg to 1,229 kg, an increase of around 13.6%.
  • The norms provide manufacturers flexibility to adopt cleaner technologies, alternative fuels and innovative solutions to improve fuel efficiency.
  • The framework promotes technological innovations such as solar-reflective paints, advanced glazing and high-efficiency air-conditioning systems.
  • The revised CAFE framework supports India’s objectives of energy security, sustainability, electrification and reduced fossil-fuel consumption.
  • The norms are aligned with the increasing availability of alternative and renewable fuels and rapid advancements in global automotive technologies.

Q5. The Indian Women’s Compound Archery team secured the Gold Medal at the Asian Games 2026 by defeating which country in the final match at Okazaki Chuo Sogo Park?

(a) South Korea

(b) Chinese Taipei

(c) China

(d) Japan

(e) Indonesia

Answer: c

Solution:

  • The Indian Women’s Compound Archery team won the gold medal at the Asian Games 2026.
  • India defeated China 238–234 in the final at Okazaki Chuo Sogo Park, Japan.
  • The Indian team comprised Jyothi Surekha Vennam, Chikitha Taniparthi and Prithika Pradeep.
  • India reached the final after defeating South Korea 234–233 in the semifinal.
  • India had also won gold in the women’s compound team event at the 2023 Asian Games in Hangzhou.

Q6. The Indian women’s 4×400 metre relay team clinched the Gold medal at the Asian Games 2026 in Nagoya, Japan. What was the winning timing clocked by the Indian team?

(a) 3 minutes 24.12 seconds

(b) 3 minutes 27.45 seconds

(c) 3 minutes 29.69 seconds

(d) 3 minutes 31.05 seconds

(e) 3 minutes 33.80 seconds

Answer: c

Solution:

  • India won the gold medal in the women’s 4×400m relay at the Asian Games 2026 in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan.
  • The Indian team comprised Kiran Pahal, Poovamma Machettira, Prachi Choudhary and Vithya Ramraj.
  • India clocked 3:29.69 at the Nagoya City Mizuho Park Athletic Stadium.
  • Bahrain won silver with 3:30.21, while the People’s Republic of China secured bronze with 3:31.02.
  • The victory marked India’s sixth Asian Games women’s 4×400m relay title.
  • It was India’s first gold in this event since Jakarta 2018.
  • India had previously won the women’s 4×400m relay at five consecutive Asian Games editions from Busan 2002 to Jakarta 2018.
  • The Indian women finished runners-up at the Hangzhou 2023 Asian Games.
  • Poovamma Machettira was also part of India’s gold medal-winning relay teams at Incheon 2014 and Jakarta 2018.

Q7. Which country hosted the 11th meeting of the BIMSTEC Joint Working Group on Counter Terrorism and Transnational Crime (JWG-CTTC) on September 28–29, 2026?

(a) Bangladesh

(b) Thailand

(c) Sri Lanka

(d) India

(e) Myanmar

Answer: d

Solution:

  • The 11th Meeting of the BIMSTEC Joint Working Group on Counter Terrorism and Transnational Crime (JWG-CTTC) was hosted by the Government of India.
  • The meeting was held on 28–29 September 2026 in New Delhi.
  • Delegations from all seven BIMSTEC Member States participated: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Thailand.

BIMSTEC – Key Facts

  • BIMSTEC stands for Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation.
  • It was established on 6 June 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration.
  • BIMSTEC connects South Asia and Southeast Asia, comprising five South Asian countries—Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal and Sri Lanka—and two Southeast Asian countries—Myanmar and Thailand.
  • It was initially formed as BIST-EC in 1997, comprising Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand.
  • With the inclusion of Myanmar in 1998, it was renamed BIMST-EC.
  • In 2004, the grouping was renamed BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation).
  • BIMSTEC aims to strengthen technical and economic cooperation among its member countries.
  • Its major institutional meetings include Summits every two years, Ministerial Meetings annually and Senior Officials’ Meetings twice a year.
  • BIMSTEC has identified 14 priority areas of cooperation, with member countries taking the lead in specific areas.
  • India leads four priority areas: Transport & Communication, Tourism, Environment & Disaster Management, and Counter Terrorism & Transnational Crime.
  • The BIMSTEC Secretariat is located in Dhaka, Bangladesh.

Q8. The Ministry of Tourism launched the National Digital Tourism Stack (NDTS) as an Open Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) on World Tourism Day 2026. Which entity is collaborating with the Ministry as a primary technical developer for this stack?

(a) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)

(b) Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)

(c) Digital India Corporation (DIC)

(d) Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC)

(e) National Informatics Centre (NIC)

Answer: b

Solution:

Recently, the Ministry of Tourism on World Tourism Day 2026 launched the National Digital Tourism Stack and the National Mission for Alternative Destinations -Dekho Apna Desh Campaign 2.0.

About National Digital Tourism Stack:

  • It is an open digital public infrastructure initiative aimed at making tourism offerings more discoverable, accessible and trustworthy.
  • Developed by: It is being developed in collaboration with Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) and the support of International Centre for DPI Innovation and Advancement (ICDIA).
  • Features:
    • It will enable tourism providers to make their offerings available across participating platforms, supported by capabilities such as verified identities and supplier credentials, search and discovery, payments, ratings and grievance redressal.
    • It is envisaged as a collaborative effort involving the Ministry, States, Union Territories and industry, the programme will be implemented in phases with a pilot planned for January 2027.

Key Facts about National Mission for Alternative Destinations:

  • It is a mission for distribution of tourism demand and promotion of lesser-known destinations under Dekho Apna Desh Campaign 2.0.
  • It seeks to promote tourism-ready, lesser-known destinations across India to diversify domestic tourist flows, improve visitor experience and create opportunities for local communities and tourism enterprises.
  • Four pillars of the Mission:
    • Selection of destinations: States and Union Territories will nominate tourism-ready destinations with a distinct appeal, adequate infrastructure and accommodation capacity to receive additional visitors, and willingness to share tourism data.
      • The pilot themes: Mountain alternatives, coastal and waterfront alternatives, heritage and cultural destinations, and regional pilgrimage alternatives.
    • Packaging of tourism products: Selected destinations will be developed into bookable tourism products and themed itineraries integrating accommodation, transport, food, experiences and local activities.
    • Joint promotion: Destinations will be promoted through coordinated campaigns with States, Union Territories and industry partners.
    • Data-driven management: A national tourism monitoring dashboard or framework will support destination management by tracking tourist footfall, carrying capacity and visitor feedback.

Q9. Fatima Ezzahra El Mansouri was appointed Prime Minister of Morocco by King Mohammed VI in September 2026. She is the second woman Prime Minister in the Arab world, following which leader who was appointed as the first woman Prime Minister in the Arab world in 2021?

(a) Sameera Ibrahim Islam

(b) Najla Bouden

(c) Loubna Olayan

(d) Reema bint Bandar Al Saud

(e) Sahar Nasr

Answer: b

Solution:

  • Fatima Ezzahra El Mansouri was appointed Prime Minister/Head of Government of Morocco by King Mohammed VI on 29 September 2026.
  • She became the first woman to head the Moroccan government and the second woman Prime Minister in the Arab world, after Najla Bouden of Tunisia.
  • Her appointment followed Morocco’s parliamentary elections held on 23 September 2026.
  • Her Authenticity and Modernity Party (PAM) emerged as the largest party, winning 97 of the 395 seats in the House of Representatives.
  • Under Article 47 of Morocco’s Constitution, the King appoints the Head of Government from the political party that wins the largest number of seats in the House of Representatives.
  • El Mansouri was tasked with forming Morocco’s new government.
  • Before her appointment, she served as Minister of National Territory Planning, Housing and City Policy and as Mayor of Marrakech.

Q10. The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) adopted its first-ever declaration on sea level rise in September 2026. What legal protection does the declaration explicitly accord to Small Island Developing States (SIDS) whose territories face complete physical submergence?

(a) Automatic transfer of sovereignty to neighboring continental nations

(b) Preservation of statehood, sovereignty, rights, and UN membership

(c) Immediate nullification of maritime boundaries and baseline claims

(d) Reclassification of submerged territory as international waters (High Seas)

(e) Mandated annexation into UN Trusteeship Council administration

Answer: b

Solution:

  • The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) adopted its first declaration on sea-level rise during a high-level plenary meeting on 24 September 2026.
  • The declaration establishes a common international position on the legal and practical challenges arising from rising sea levels.
  • Global mean sea level reached a record high in 2024, while the rate of rise increased from 1 mm per year during 1993–2002 to 4.7 mm per year during 2015–2024.
  • The declaration affirms that countries threatened by rising seas do not automatically lose their statehood even if parts or all of their territory become submerged.
  • It supports the continued existence of such states, including their sovereignty, rights, responsibilities and UN membership.
  • The issue is particularly important for Small Island Developing States (SIDS), which face risks from loss of habitable land and possible submergence.

Bank of Baroda LBO Exam Day Guidelines 2026, Check Important Instructions

The Bank of Baroda Local Bank Officer (LBO) Online Examination 2026 is scheduled to be conducted on 3 October 2026. The recruitment is being conducted for 2,482 Local Bank Officer posts in JMG/Scale-I, and the call letter has already been released for candidates appearing in the examination.

Bank of Baroda LBO Exam Day Guidelines 2026

Candidates must follow the instructions provided by the Test Administrator and Bank representative at the examination venue. Any violation of the examination instructions can lead to disqualification, so candidates should avoid carrying prohibited items or attempting to use unfair means.

1. Carry the Printed Call Letter

Candidates must carry a printed copy of the Bank of Baroda LBO call letter to the examination centre. The call letter should have the candidate’s recent passport-size photograph duly pasted, as instructed.

Candidates should check the call letter carefully before leaving for the examination. The examination date, reporting time, shift and venue mentioned on the individual call letter should be followed.

Also Read, Bank of Baroda LBO Admit Card 2026

2. Carry a Valid Photo ID Proof

Candidates should carry the original and currently valid photo identity proof to the examination centre. A photocopy of the photo ID should also be carried as instructed and attached with the call letter.

The accepted identification documents include:

  • PAN Card
  • Passport
  • Permanent Driving Licence
  • Voter’s Card with photograph
  • Bank Passbook with photograph
  • Aadhaar Card/e-Aadhaar Card with photograph
  • Employee ID
  • Valid photo ID issued by a recognised College or University
  • Photo ID issued by a Gazetted Officer or People’s Representative on official letterhead

* A Ration Card and Learner’s Driving Licence are not accepted as valid photo identity proof.

3. Name on ID Proof Must Match the Call Letter

Candidates should make sure that their name on the photo ID proof exactly matches the name mentioned on the call letter. Any discrepancy can create problems during verification at the examination centre.

Candidates who have changed their name should carry the applicable supporting document, such as a Gazette notification, marriage certificate or affidavit, as specified in the examination instructions.

4. Do Not Carry a Calculator or Electronic Device

Candidates are not permitted to use calculators, whether separate or incorporated into a watch. Books, notebooks, written notes, mobile phones and other electronic devices are also prohibited in the examination.

Candidates should therefore avoid carrying unnecessary electronic or study-related items to the examination centre.

Items Not Allowed in the Bank of Baroda LBO Exam Hall

Candidates should be particularly careful about prohibited items because carrying certain articles into the examination hall can result in disqualification.

  • Mobile phones
  • Calculators
  • Smartwatches and other watches
  • Bluetooth devices
  • Earphones
  • Microphones
  • Pagers
  • Electronic pens/scanners
  • Pen drives
  • Books and written material
  • Notes or loose papers
  • Geometry/pencil boxes
  • Writing pads
  • Scale
  • Camera
  • Handbags
  • Belts
  • Caps
  • Metallic items
  • Food items
  • Any communication device

Reach the Examination Centre on Time

Candidates should check the reporting time and venue address printed on their call letter and plan their journey accordingly. The examination instructions advise candidates to visit the venue beforehand if necessary so that they can locate the centre and report on time.

BOB LBO Exam 2026: Important Instructions Regarding Answers

The online examination uses a computer-based question interface. Candidates should understand the functions such as Save & Next and Mark for Review & Next before starting the test.

  • Select an option by clicking on the desired answer.
  • Use Save & Next to save an answer and move to the next question.
  • Use Mark for Review & Next when an answered question needs to be reviewed later.
  • An answered question marked for review will be considered for evaluation.
  • Only questions for which answers are saved or marked for review after answering will be considered for evaluation.

Do Not Press Keyboard Keys During the Examination

One important instruction in the examination handout is that candidates should not press keyboard keys once the examination starts, as doing so can lock the examination.

Candidates should use the mouse and the options available on the examination interface to navigate through the test. They should also follow the on-screen instructions carefully before answering questions.

Biometric and Verification Instructions

The examination process includes identity and verification procedures. The Bank’s examination instructions state that photograph and iris data may be captured at the examination venue, with the iris data being verified after the examination.

Candidates are instructed to remove contact lenses and spectacles during iris capture and are advised to prefer spectacles rather than contact lenses. Candidates who refuse the iris scanning or verification process may face cancellation of their candidature.

Supreme Court JCA Recruitment 2026 Notification OUT for 250 Assistant Posts, Apply from 7 Oct

The Supreme Court of India has released the Junior Court Assistant (JCA) Recruitment 2026 Notification for the selection of suitable candidates against 250 tentative vacancies. The post is a Group-B Non-Gazetted position placed in Level 6 of the Pay Matrix, with an initial basic pay of ₹35,400 plus allowances. Eligible Indian citizens can submit their applications online from 7 October 2026, while the last date to apply is 28 October 2026 up to 11:55 PM.

Supreme Court JCA Recruitment 2026 Notification OUT

The Supreme Court JCA Recruitment 2026 provides an opportunity for graduates to apply for the Junior Court Assistant post. The recruitment advertisement is dated 30 September 2026, and eligibility is to be determined as on 1 September 2026. The selection process consists of an Objective Type Test, Typing Speed Test, Written Test (Descriptive) and Interview.

Supreme Court JCA Recruitment 2026: Notification PDF

SCI JCA 2026: Overview

Particular Details
Recruitment
Supreme Court Junior Court Assistant Recruitment 2026
Vacancies 250 (Tentative)
Post Junior Court Assistant
Group Group-B Non-Gazetted
Pay Level Level 6
Initial Basic Pay ₹35,400 + Allowances
Minimum Qualification Bachelor’s Degree
Typing Requirement 35 words per minute on Computer
Application Starts 7 October 2026
Last Date to Apply 28 October 2026
Last Time to Apply 11:55 PM
Objective Type Test 20 November 2026 (Tentative)
Objective Test 100 Marks
Typing Speed Test 50 Marks
Written Test (Descriptive) 100 Marks
Interview 25 Marks
Negative Marking 0.25 mark for each incorrect answer
Official Website www.sci.gov.in

SCI Junior Court Assistant 2026: Important Dates

Candidates can check the complete Supreme Court JCA Recruitment 2026 important dates in the table below.

Event Date
Notification Release 30 September 2026
Online Application Begins 7 October 2026
Last Date to Apply Online 28 October 2026 (11:55 PM)
Objective Type Test 20 November 2026 (Tentative)
Typing Speed Test To Be Announced
Written Test (Descriptive) To Be Announced
Interview To Be Announced

Supreme Court of India JCA Vacancy 2026

The recruitment notification announces 250 tentative vacancies for the Junior Court Assistant post. The post falls under Group-B Non-Gazetted and carries Level 6 of the Pay Matrix. The initial basic pay is ₹35,400, and the notification specifies that allowances will be payable in addition to the basic pay. The vacancy figure can be changed by the Registry depending on administrative requirements and other applicable considerations.

Supreme Court JCA Eligibility Criteria 2026

Candidates applying for the Junior Court Assistant post must fulfil the educational and computer-related requirements specified in the advertisement.

Educational Qualification

Candidates must possess a Bachelor’s degree from a recognised University in India. The notification does not specify a particular stream for the bachelor’s degree in the qualification section.

  • Educational Qualification: Bachelor’s Degree from a recognised University in India
  • Computer Knowledge: Knowledge of computer operation
  • Typing Speed: 35 words per minute on a computer
  • Typing Language: English

Age Limit

The age will be calculated as on 1 September 2026, with the prescribed relaxations applicable to eligible categories.

Criteria Age
Minimum Age 18 years
Maximum Age 30 years
SC/ST/OBC-NCL
Relaxation as per Government of India Rules
Physically Challenged Relaxation as per applicable rules
Ex-Servicemen Relaxation as per applicable rules
Dependents of Freedom Fighters Up to 5 years above prescribed upper age
Departmental Candidates of Supreme Court Registry No upper age limit

SCI JCA Application Fee 2026

Candidates have to pay the prescribed application fee through the online payment gateway provided by UCO Bank.

  • General/Unreserved: ₹1,500
  • SC/ST/OBC-NCL/Ex-Servicemen/Physically Challenged: ₹750

SCI Junior Court Assistant Selection Process 2026

The selection process comprises four stages, with separate qualifying marks prescribed for each stage.

Stage Maximum Marks Duration Qualifying Marks
Objective Type Test 100 1½ hours 50
Typing Speed Test 50 10 minutes 25
Written Test (Descriptive) 100 2 hours 50
Interview 25 — 13

SCI JCA Exam Pattern 2026

The Objective Type Test contains 100 questions for 100 marks and covers general subjects along with judiciary- and Supreme Court-related topics.

Subject Questions Duration
General English including Comprehension 20 90 minutes
(1½ hours)
General Aptitude 15
General Knowledge 15
Constitutional Provisions relating to Judiciary 15
Supreme Court Rules, 2013 10
Supreme Court Officers and Servants Rules, 1961 10
Computer Knowledge 15
Total 100

Supreme Court JCA Application Form 2026

The online application process for Supreme Court JCA Recruitment 2026 will begin on 7 October 2026. Eligible candidates will be required to submit their applications through the official website of the Supreme Court of India, and applications will be accepted through online registration only. The last date and time for submitting the application is 28 October 2026 at 11:55 PM. Candidates should avoid waiting until the final hours because incomplete applications or payment-related issues could prevent successful submission.

SCI JCA Salary 2026

The Supreme Court of India Junior Court Assistant (JCA) post is placed in Level 6 of the Pay Matrix, with an initial basic pay of ₹35,400. In addition to the basic pay, employees are entitled to applicable allowances and benefits as per the rules of the Supreme Court of India. The notification specifies the basic pay and pay level, while the exact monthly in-hand salary will depend on applicable allowances and deductions.

IBPS RRB Clerk 2nd Reserve List 2026 Out (CRP XIV), Check Provisional Allotment

The IBPS RRB Clerk 2nd Reserve List 2026 (CRP RRB XIV) has been released on 30 September 2026. Candidates who participated in the recruitment process can now check the provisional allotment status through the official IBPS website and find out whether they have been provisionally allotted a Regional Rural Bank under the second reserve list.

IBPS RRB Clerk Reserve List 2026 Out

The release of the state-wise selected candidates list is the final step for candidates who were waiting after the reserve list announcement. The 1st IBPS RRB Clerk Reserve List 2026 was released on 31 July 2026. Candidates who were included in the reserve list but did not receive allotment at that stage were waiting for further vacancies and the next round of provisional allotment. Now, the 2nd IBPS RRB Clerk Reserve List 2026 has been released on 30 September 2026, allowing candidates to check their state-wise provisional allotment status.

Check IBPS RRB Clerk Reserve List Selected Candidates

Candidates can now check their Provisional Allotment Status through the official IBPS website. Those whose names appear in the state-wise list have been allotted a bank under the reserve vacancy process.

IBPS RRB Clerk 2nd Reserve List 2026

Steps to Check IBPS RRB Clerk State-Wise Selected Candidates List 2026

  1. Visit the official IBPS website (ibps.in).
  2. Click on the “CRP RRBs” section on the homepage.
  3. Click on the link for “State-Wise Selected Candidates List – CRP RRBs Office Assistant (Multipurpose) 2026”.
  4. Select your State from the list provided.
  5. Open the link for your respective state.
  6. Search for your Roll Number/Registration Number using Ctrl + F 

Details Mentioned in the State-Wise Selected Candidates List

The allotment list includes the following details:

  • Candidate’s Registration Number/Roll Number
  • Candidate’s Name
  • State
  • Category
  • Participating RRB Allotted
  • Provisional Allotment Status

What Happens After Selection?

Candidates whose names appear in the state-wise selected candidates list should wait for further communication from their allotted Regional Rural Bank. The participating bank will share details regarding:

  • Document Verification
  • Medical Examination (if applicable)
  • Joining Formalities
  • Reporting Date and Branch Details

Documents Required for Verification

Candidates should keep the following documents ready:

  • Provisional Allotment Letter
  • Admit Card
  • Educational Certificates
  • Identity Proof (Aadhaar/PAN/Voter ID/Passport)
  • Category Certificate (if applicable)
  • Domicile Certificate (if required)
  • Passport-size Photographs
  • Any other documents specified by the allotted bank

Important Instructions for Selected Candidates

  • Regularly check your registered email ID and mobile number.
  • Visit the official IBPS website for the latest updates.
  • Respond promptly to any communication from the allotted RRB.
  • Carry both original documents and self-attested photocopies during document verification.
  • Complete all joining formalities within the prescribed timeline to avoid cancellation of allotment.

Daily Current Affairs and GK Updates (30th September, 2026)

National News

UIDAI Launches Five Initiatives on 17th Aadhaar Day

  • UIDAI launched five new initiatives during Aadhaar Samvaad in Kolkata on September 29, 2026, marking the 17th Aadhaar Day.
  • The event was attended by over 600 policymakers, industry leaders and professionals, with Jitin Prasada as chief guest.
  • The initiatives include Face Authentication for ePDS, SWIK Portal 2.0, Sub-AUA/Sub-KUA (LITE) Framework, Token Management System and a revamped UIDAI website.
  • Face Authentication provides beneficiaries with an additional contactless option for accessing ePDS services, while SWIK 2.0 streamlines authentication approval proposals.
  • Key Fact: The revamped UIDAI website includes BHASHINI integration for improved multilingual accessibility.

India Adds Five Cultural Sites to UNESCO Tentative List 2026

  • India added five cultural heritage proposals to the UNESCO World Heritage Tentative List in 2026.
  • The sites are Bagh Cave paintings, Udaigiri Caves, Ginnorgarh Fort, Group of Temples of the Chambal Valley, and Sites of Satyagraha involving India and South Africa.
  • Four sites in Madhya Pradesh were submitted on July 8, 2026, while Sites of Satyagraha was submitted on September 3.
  • The Bagh Caves feature Gupta-period Buddhist murals, while Udaigiri Caves contain Hindu, Shaiva and Jain remains.
  • Key Fact: UNESCO’s database lists 78 Indian Tentative List properties and 45 World Heritage properties.

India Sets 373.93 Million Tonne Foodgrain Target For 2026-27

  • The Union Government fixed India’s 2026-27 foodgrain production target at 373.93 million tonnes.
  • Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan announced the target on September 29, 2026, at the National Agriculture Conference–Rabi Campaign 2026 in New Delhi.
  • The target includes 196.21 million tonnes for Kharif and 177.72 million tonnes for Rabi.
  • The target is 2.63 million tonnes below the estimated 376.56 million tonnes produced in 2025-26, reflecting weather and water-related risks.
  • Key Fact: Kharif sowing covered 110.39 million hectares by September 18, 2026, about 1.3% below the previous year.

PM-RKVY Allocates ₹1,281 Crore to Ten States

  • The Centre sanctioned ₹1,281 crore under PM-RKVY to 10 states during the National Agriculture Conference–Rabi Campaign 2026.
  • West Bengal received ₹290 crore, followed by Haryana with ₹198 crore and Chhattisgarh with ₹181 crore.
  • Other beneficiary states include Arunachal Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Mizoram, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand and Punjab.
  • PM-RKVY promotes sustainable agriculture through components covering soil health, mechanisation, micro-irrigation, crop diversification and agri-startups.
  • Key Fact: The government announced Khet Bachao Abhiyan from October 22 to November 30, 2026, focusing on soil health and balanced fertiliser use.

MSME Ministry and MoSPI Sign MoU to Strengthen Business Register

  • The Ministry of MSME and MoSPI signed an MoU to strengthen the Statistical Business Register (SBR) and develop the National Statistical Business Register.
  • Unit-level information from the Udyam Registration ecosystem will be shared with MoSPI through a two-way API mechanism.
  • The arrangement aims to improve the coverage, consistency and reliability of business information used for statistical purposes.
  • The SBR supports economic surveys, sampling, business demography and integration of business data.
  • Key Fact: The MoU establishes a formal administrative-data sharing framework between the two ministries.

State News

Gujarat Restructures Porbandar Forest Division to Develop Barda as Second Lion Habitat

  • Gujarat reorganized the Porbandar forest division to strengthen forest management and develop Barda as a second habitat for Asiatic lions.
  • The move follows the natural return of Asiatic lions to the area after 143 years.
  • The restructuring includes new forest ranges and beats, area-specific responsibilities, personnel and equipment deployment, and recruitment of two ACFs.
  • The division now has seven ranges under the Junagadh Wildlife Circle, with Porbandar and Ranavav separated into individual beats.
  • Key Fact: The May 2026 lion census recorded 891 Asiatic lions, up from 674 in 2020.

Jharkhand’s Traditional Musical Instrument Mandar Gets GI Tag

  • Mandar, an indigenous double-headed percussion instrument of Jharkhand, received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
  • The instrument is traditionally used by tribal and non-tribal communities during festivals, religious ceremonies, agricultural celebrations and cultural performances.
  • Its cylindrical, slightly bulging body is made from red soil, with two leather-covered openings of different sizes.
  • Artisans traditionally use local materials such as soil, leather and braided strings to produce its characteristic sound.
  • Key Fact: The GI recognition protects Mandar’s geographical identity, traditional craftsmanship and cultural heritage.

Uttarakhand to Install First Glacial Lake Warning System in Chamoli

  • Uttarakhand is installing its first glacial lake early warning system at Vasundhara Tal in Chamoli district.
  • The initiative is being coordinated by the Uttarakhand State Disaster Management Authority under the National GLOF Risk Mitigation Programme.
  • Scientists from CBRI Roorkee and Wadia Institute of Himalayan Geology are participating, with support from SDRF, NDRF and ITBP.
  • The system will use water-level and snow-depth sensors, weather stations, subsurface temperature sensors and satellite communications.
  • Key Fact: Uttarakhand has identified 344 glacial lakes, including 13 high-risk lakes, using 2023 satellite data.

International News

Trump and Tech Giants Back Voluntary AI Safety Commitments at White House Meeting

  • US President Donald Trump and executives from OpenAI, Anthropic, Meta, Google and Nvidia backed voluntary AI safety commitments.
  • The commitments include independent audits of AI systems and safeguards against AI tools unintentionally accessing or hacking technical systems.
  • Participating executives included Greg Brockman, Dario Amodei, Mark Zuckerberg, Sundar Pichai and Jensen Huang.
  • Discussions also covered the expansion of AI data centres and their requirements for computing power, electricity, cooling and networking.
  • Key Fact: The AI safety commitments are voluntary and are not federal legislation or mandatory regulation.

Fatima Zahra El Mansouri Becomes Morocco’s First Woman Prime Minister

  • Morocco’s King Mohammed VI appointed Fatima Zahra El Mansouri as Prime Minister on September 29, 2026.
  • Her appointment followed the September 23 parliamentary election, in which her Authenticity and Modernity Party (PAM) won 97 of 395 seats.
  • The National Rally of Independents won 66 seats, Istiqlal 65 and Justice and Development 54.
  • Since PAM fell short of the 198 seats required for a majority, El Mansouri must form a coalition government.
  • Key Fact: She became Morocco’s first woman Prime Minister and the second woman to lead a government in the Arab world after Tunisia’s Najla Bouden.

India and Italy Strengthen Tourism Cooperation Through JWG

  • India and Italy held the 2nd Joint Working Group on Tourism on September 29, 2026.
  • The meeting was co-chaired by Bhuvnesh Kumar of India’s Ministry of Tourism and Emanuela Tripi of Italy’s Ministry of Tourism.
  • Discussions covered tourism data exchange, lesser-known destinations, cine-tourism, destination twinning and skill development.
  • Both countries agreed to establish focused technical groups and designate points of contact for further cooperation.
  • Key Fact: The meeting discussed preparations for the proposed India–Italy Year of Culture and Tourism 2027.

Edward Rukidi Nyabongo I Crowned New King of Tooro Kingdom

  • Edward Rukidi Kijanangoma was crowned the new Omukama of Uganda’s Tooro Kingdom on September 29, 2026.
  • The coronation took place at Karuziika Palace in Fort Portal City.
  • He adopted the regnal name Edward Rukidi Nyabongo I following the death of King Oyo Nyimba Kabamba Iguru Rukidi IV.
  • A 21-member Babiito succession committee selected him on September 9, followed by unanimous endorsement from the Tooro Kingdom Supreme Council.
  • Key Fact: Kijanangoma is a member of the Babiito royal dynasty and cousin of the late King Oyo.

India and Qatar Accelerate FTA and Investment Treaty Talks

  • India and Qatar agreed to accelerate negotiations on a Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) and Free Trade Agreement (FTA).
  • Qatar is also planning USD 10 billion in investment in India, including opportunities in ports, airports, highways and power.
  • Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman held talks with Qatar’s Minister of State for Foreign Trade Ahmad bin Mohammed Al-Sayed in Doha.
  • Discussions also covered opportunities for Indian companies in Qatar and the possibility of establishing a Qatar Investment Authority office in India.
  • Key Fact: India highlighted 7.8% real GDP growth in Q1 FY26 and USD 94.53 billion FDI inflows in FY26.

UN Adopts First Political Declaration on Sea-Level Rise

  • The UN General Assembly adopted its first Political Declaration on sea-level rise at a high-level meeting in New York on September 24, 2026.
  • The declaration addresses legal, environmental, economic and humanitarian impacts of rising sea levels.
  • It supports the continued statehood, sovereignty and UN membership of states affected by sea-level rise.
  • It calls for stronger adaptation measures, early warning systems, resilient infrastructure, coastal protection and climate finance.
  • Key Fact: Around 900 million people live in low-lying coastal zones, while more than 1 billion could face coastal hazards by 2050.

Awards News

Nobel Prize 2026 Announcements to Be Held from October 5 to 12

  • The 2026 Nobel Prize announcements will be held from October 5 to 12 across six categories.
  • The categories are Physiology or Medicine, Physics, Chemistry, Literature, Peace and Economic Sciences.
  • Medicine will be announced on October 5, followed by Physics on October 6, Chemistry on October 7 and Literature on October 8.
  • The Peace Prize will be announced on October 9, followed by Economic Sciences on October 12.
  • Key Fact: The Nobel Prizes originated from Alfred Nobel’s will signed in Paris on November 27, 1895, while the Economics prize was first awarded in 1969.

Sports News

India Win Men’s Compound Archery Gold at Asian Games 2026

  • India won the men’s compound archery team gold at the 2026 Asian Games in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan.
  • Kushal Dalal, Sahil Jadhav and Ganesh Thirumuru defeated China 238-237 in the final on September 30.
  • India had earlier defeated South Korea 234-233 in the semifinal.
  • The victory completed India’s hat-trick of compound archery team gold medals following victories in the women’s and mixed team events.
  • Key Fact: India’s victory marked its third consecutive Asian Games compound archery team gold.

Priya Ghanghas Wins Women’s 60kg Boxing Bronze Medal

  • Indian boxer Priya Ghanghas won bronze in the women’s 60kg category at the 2026 Asian Games.
  • She lost 1-4 to China’s Yang Chengyu in the semifinal at Nishio Gymnasium.
  • Priya defeated South Korea’s Oh Yeonji in the pre-quarterfinal and Tajikistan’s Mijgona Samadova 5-0 in the quarterfinal.
  • Her recent international achievements include gold medals at the 2026 Commonwealth Games and Asian Elite Boxing Championships.
  • Key Fact: Priya Ghanghas is from Bhiwani, Haryana, a region known for its boxing tradition.

Asian Games 2026: India Wins Women’s 4x400m Relay Gold

  • India won the women’s 4x400m relay gold at the 2026 Asian Games.
  • The Indian team of Kiran Pahal, M.R. Poovamma, Prachi and Vithya Ramraj clocked 3:29.69.
  • Bahrain won silver in 3:30.21, while China secured bronze in 3:31.02.
  • Vithya Ramraj produced the decisive anchor leg to secure India’s victory.
  • Key Fact: Vithya completed a three-medal haul at the 2026 Asian Games, including silver in mixed 4x400m relay and bronze in 400m hurdles.

India Wins Two Compound Archery Golds at Asian Games 2026

  • India won two compound archery gold medals at the 2026 Asian Games on September 30.
  • Sahil Jadhav and Chikitha Taniparthi defeated South Korea 20-19 in a shoot-off to win the mixed team title.
  • India had earlier defeated Thailand 156-155 in the mixed team semifinal.
  • Jyothi Surekha Vennam, Chikitha Taniparthi and Prithika Pradeep won the women’s team title with 238 points.
  • Key Fact: The mixed team victory secured India a quota place for compound archery at the 2028 Los Angeles Olympics.

Neeru Dhanda and Kynan Chenai Win Trap Mixed Team Gold

  • Neeru Dhanda and Kynan Chenai won the trap mixed team gold medal at the 2026 Asian Games.
  • The Indian pair scored 34 points in the final, setting a new Asian Record.
  • Qatar won silver with 32 points, while China secured bronze with 23.
  • The victory gave Neeru her second gold in two days, following her individual trap title.
  • Key Fact: Neeru Dhanda became the first Indian woman to win Asian Games gold in the individual trap event.

Important Days News

International Translation Day Observed Annually on September 30

  • International Translation Day is observed every year on September 30 to recognise translators, interpreters and other language professionals.
  • The UN General Assembly designated September 30 as International Translation Day in 2017 through Resolution 71/288.
  • The date coincides with the feast day of Saint Jerome, the patron saint of translators.
  • The observance highlights the role of language professionals in promoting communication, dialogue, cooperation, peace and development.
  • Key Fact: The UN has six official languages: Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian and Spanish.

Current Affairs Today | Revision 30 September 2026 | Daily Current Affairs | By Ashish Gautam