Daily Current Affairs Quiz 11th August 2026 for Banking & Competitive Exams |

Daily Current Affairs: 11 August, 2026

Q1. Where is the 8th edition of the Indian Navy–US Navy Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD) Exercise 2026 being conducted?

(a) Eastern Naval Command, Visakhapatnam

(b) Southern Naval Command, Kochi

(d) Andaman and Nicobar Command, Port Blair

(e) Naval War College, Goa

Answer: b
Solution:

The Indian Navy–US Navy Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD) Exercise 2026 is being conducted at the Southern Naval Command, Kochi, from 10–14 August 2026.
The five-day bilateral exercise aims to enhance interoperability and strengthen professional cooperation between the specialist diving and EOD teams of the Indian Navy and US Navy.
The exercise comprises Subject Matter Expert Exchanges (SMEEs), cross-training, equipment demonstrations and scenario-based practical exercises.
It will facilitate the exchange of contemporary EOD methodologies, emerging technologies and best practices.
The exercise will also provide both navies an opportunity to understand each other’s capabilities, operational concepts and employment philosophies.
The engagement is designed to promote collaborative learning and operational synergy, enabling personnel to refine procedures, enhance mutual understanding and improve their ability to respond to complex and evolving EOD challenges.
The Indian Navy and US Navy have been conducting joint Salvage and EOD exercises since 2005.
The 2026 engagement marks the eighth edition of this specialised bilateral training exercise.

Q2. Indian weightlifter Maharajan Arumugapandian won the silver medal at the Asian Junior Weightlifting Championships in Tashkent, Uzbekistan, competing in which weight category?

(a) 55 kg

(b) 61 kg

(d) 73 kg

(e) 81 kg

Answer: c
Solution:

Indian weightlifter Maharajan Arumugapandian won the silver medal in the men’s 65 kg category at the Asian Junior Weightlifting Championships in Tashkent, Uzbekistan.
Maharajan recorded a personal-best total of 285 kg.
He lifted 128 kg in the snatch and 157 kg in the clean and jerk.
Vietnam’s Hoang Thach won the gold medal with a total lift of 291 kg, finishing 6 kg ahead of Maharajan

Q3. The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) recently removed the requirement of submitting which physical document while applying for Export Obligation Discharge Certificates (EODC)?

(a) Bill of Lading

(b) Duty Payment Challans

(d) Shipping Bills

(e) Importer-Exporter Code (IEC) Certificate

Answer: b

Solution:

The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) has removed the requirement for exporters to submit physical duty payment challans while applying for Export Obligation Discharge Certificates (EODC) under the Advance Authorisation (AA) and Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) Schemes.
The reform integrates licence-wise voluntary duty payment data received from Customs/ICEGATE with DGFT’s online systems, enabling authenticated verification of payments against the concerned authorisation.
For voluntary duty payments made on or after 1 August 2026, exporters will no longer need to submit physical challans while applying for closure of authorisations.
Authenticated payment details will be available on the DGFT Customer Portal, allowing exporters to verify that payments have been correctly mapped to the relevant authorisation before submitting their applications.
The same authenticated payment records will be accessible to Regional Authorities through the DGFT Back Office, eliminating the need for manual verification of payment details.

Digital Integration

The facility has been implemented through an API-based data exchange between DGFT and ICEGATE.
Under this system, duty payment particulars are transmitted electronically from Customs systems to DGFT’s EODC processing workflow.
The shift from manual submission and verification to authenticated digital records is expected to reduce processing time, improve data accuracy, minimise human intervention and enhance transparency.

Q4. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) granted a one-year extension in service to who among the following as the Director of the Enforcement Directorate (ED)?

(a) Sanjay Kumar Mishra

(b) Rahul Navin

(d) Tapan Deka

(e) Nitin Gupta

Answer: b

Solution:

The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) approved a one-year extension for Enforcement Directorate (ED) Director Rahul Navin on 8 August 2026.
The extension allows Rahul Navin to continue as the head of the central financial investigation agency until 13 August 2027, or until further orders.

Q5. Who among the following was appointed as the Secretary and Head of Iran’s Supreme National Security Council (SNSC) in August, 2026?

(a) Ali Shamkhani

(b) Mohammad Bagher Ghalibaf

(d) Esmail Qaani

(d) Mohsen Rezaee

Answer:

Solution:

Mohsen Rezaee, former commander of the Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC), was appointed on 9 August 2026 as a representative to Iran’s Supreme National Security Council (SNSC).
He was also appointed as the Secretary and Head of the Supreme National Security Council.
The appointment was made by Iranian President Masoud Pezeshkian.
Rezaee succeeded Mohammad Bagher Zolghadr, who resigned from the position.

Q6. The Supreme Court Collegium recommended who among the following judges of the Allahabad High Court for appointment as the Chief Justice of the Bombay High Court?

(a) Justice Ashwani Kumar Mishra

(b) Justice V. Kameswar Rao

(d) Justice Mahesh Chandra Tripathi

(e) Justice Sunita Agarwal

Answer: b
Solution:

Justice Mahesh Chandra Tripathi of the Allahabad High Court has been appointed as the Chief Justice of the Bombay High Court.

Q7. Lohia Aerospace Systems Private Limited (LASPL) signed an MoU with which Israel-based technology company to establish India’s first commercial large-format additive manufacturing facility?

(a) Elbit Systems

(b) Massivit

(d) Rafael Advanced Defense Systems

(e) BVR Systems

Answer: b
Solution:

In August 2026, Lohia Aerospace Systems Private Limited (LASPL) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Israel-based Massivit.
The partnership aims to establish India’s first commercial large-format additive manufacturing facility at LASPL’s facility in Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh.
The proposed facility will be established with an investment of USD 8–10 million over the next 1–2 years.

Q8. According to the 11th edition of the ‘Kroll Celebrity Brand Valuation 2025’ report, who emerged as India’s most valuable celebrity with a brand value of USD 177.9 million?

(a) Ranveer Singh

(b) Virat Kohli

(d) Akshay Kumar

(e) Amitabh Bachchan

Answer: c
Solution:

Kroll, an American global financial advisory firm, released the 11th edition of the “Kroll Celebrity Brand Valuation 2025” report in August 2026.
Shah Rukh Khan emerged as India’s most valuable celebrity, securing the 1st position with a brand value of USD 177.9 million.
Ranveer Singh retained the 2nd position with a brand value of USD 162.9 million.
Virat Kohli slipped from 1st position in 2024 to 3rd position in 2025, with a brand value of USD 158.4 million.
Sachin Tendulkar moved up one position to 4th, with a brand value of USD 125.9 million.
Mahendra Singh Dhoni improved from 7th position in 2024 to 5th position in 2025, with a brand value of USD 115.3 million.
The combined brand value of India’s top 25 celebrities was estimated at USD 2 billion in 2025, representing a 3.7% decline compared with the previous year.
Alia Bhatt emerged as the most valuable female celebrity, ranking 6th with a brand value of USD 93.9 million. She had ranked 4th in 2024.
Deepika Padukone ranked 7th with a brand value of USD 89.2 million.
The 2025 ranking featured 12 women among the top 25 celebrities, compared with 9 women in 2024.
Women celebrities recorded a 30% increase in both brand value and endorsement count, with women capturing approximately 10% of male celebrity brand value since 2023.

Q9. According to the PLFS Quarterly Bulletin for April–June 2026 released by MoSPI, what was the overall Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) for persons aged 15 years and above under Current Weekly Status (CWS)?

(a) 51.7%

(b) 52.8%

(d) 56.9%

(e) 58.2%

Answer: c
Solution:

Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) Quarterly Bulletin (April–June 2026) by NSO, Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has been released.

Key Findings:

The overall LFPR for persons aged 15 years and above stood at 54.6% in April–June 2026, compared with 55.5% in the previous quarter.
Rural LFPR declined to 56.9% from 58.2% in January–March 2026, while urban LFPR remained unchanged at 50.2%.
Overall LFPR declined by 0.4 percentage points compared with April–June 2025. Rural LFPR remained almost stable at 56.9%, compared with 57.1% during the same quarter of 2025.
Overall female LFPR stood at 33.2% during April–June 2026, compared with 34.7% in the previous quarter.
Urban male LFPR increased marginally to 75.3% from 75.0% in January–March 2026.
The overall WPR for persons aged 15 years and above stood at 51.7%, compared with 52.8% in the previous quarter.
Urban WPR remained broadly stable at 46.8%, compared with 46.9% in January–March 2026.
Urban male WPR increased marginally to 70.7%, while urban female WPR stood at 22.8%.
Overall WPR declined by 0.3 percentage points between April–June 2025 and April–June 2026. Female WPR stood at 31.3% in April–June 2026, compared with 31.6% a year earlier.
Urban unemployment rate (UR) remained broadly stable at 6.7%, compared with 6.6% in the previous quarter.
Rural UR increased marginally to 4.8% from 4.3% in January–March 2026.
Urban female UR declined to 8.7% from 9.1% in the previous quarter and from 8.9% in April–June 2025.
The share of workers in regular wage/salaried employment increased in both rural and urban areas.
In rural areas, regular wage/salaried employment increased to 16.1% in April–June 2026 from 15.5% in the previous quarter.
In urban areas, it increased to 49.3% from 48.9% in the previous quarter.
In rural areas, agriculture continued to account for the largest share of employment, although its share declined to 52.9% from 55.8% in January–March 2026.
Rural employment in the tertiary sector increased to 22.7% from 21.7%, while employment in the secondary sector along with mining and quarrying increased to 24.4% from 22.6%.
In urban areas, the tertiary sector remained the dominant source of employment, accounting for 62.0% of employment in April–June 2026, compared with 61.7% a year earlier.
The share of employment in the secondary sector along with mining and quarrying increased to 31.9% in urban areas, while agriculture’s share declined to 6.1%.

Q10. Who became the first Indian athlete to win a high jump medal at the World Athletics U20 Championships after securing silver with a clearance of 2.21 metres?

(a) Tejaswin Shankar

(b) Basant Kumar Meghwal

(d) Ashish Yadav

(e) Sarvesh Anil Kushare

Answer: b
Solution:

Basant Kumar Meghwal and Shahnavaz Khan created history for India at the World Athletics U20 Championships 2026 in Eugene, USA, winning India’s first-ever medals in the high jump and long jump, respectively.
Basant Kumar Meghwal, the reigning Asian U20 champion, won the silver medal in men’s high jump with a personal-best clearance of 2.21 metres.
Shahnavaz Khan secured the bronze medal in men’s long jump with a best effort of 7.84 metres, becoming the first Indian male athlete to win a long-jump medal at the championships.
The achievements marked a significant milestone for Indian athletics, as India had never previously won a medal in either the men’s high jump or men’s long jump at the World Athletics U20 Championships.