Daily Current Affairs: 1st August, 2026
Q1. Indian weightlifter Lovepreet Singh won a silver medal at the 2026 Glasgow Commonwealth Games in which weight category?
(a) Men’s 96 kg
(b) Men’s 102 kg
(c) Men’s 109 kg
(d) Men’s 110 kg
(e) Men’s 115 kg
Answer: d
Solution:
- India’s Lovepreet Singh won the silver medal in the men’s 110 kg weightlifting event at the Commonwealth Games 2026 in Glasgow.
- Lovepreet lifted 176 kg in the snatch, setting a new Commonwealth Games record.
- He followed it with a lift of 212 kg in the clean and jerk.
- Lovepreet finished with a total lift of 388 kg, narrowly missing the gold medal by just 1 kg.
- New Zealand’s David Liti won the gold medal with a combined lift of 389 kg.
- England’s Andrew Griffiths secured the bronze medal with a total lift of 356 kg.
Q2. Which AI-based tool has been jointly developed by the Artificial Intelligence Division of NIC and the Centre of Excellence for eCourts (CoEE) to assist Judges in legal research and document analysis?
(a) SUVAS
(b) LegRAA
(c) SUPACE
(d) JustIS
(e) e-FOIR
Answer: b
Solution:
- Two Artificial Intelligence (AI)-based tools, Legal Research Analysis Assistant (LegRAA) and Digital Courts 2.1, have been developed to support judges and judicial officers through technology-enabled legal research, document analysis and case management.
Legal Research Analysis Assistant (LegRAA)
- LegRAA has been developed jointly by the Artificial Intelligence Division of the National Informatics Centre (NIC) and the Centre of Excellence for eCourts (CoEE), NIC.
- It is an AI-based legal research and document analysis tool designed to assist judges.
- The tool aims to facilitate judicial work by providing technology-based assistance for legal research and analysis of documents.
Digital Courts 2.1
- Digital Courts 2.1 has been developed by the Centre of Excellence for eCourts (CoEE), NIC, Pune.
- It is an integrated digital case management platform that provides a single-window interface for case-related information.
- The platform incorporates AI-enabled voice-to-text transcription, helping judges and judicial officers in the dictation of orders and judgments.
- It also provides AI-enabled translation capabilities to assist judicial officers in their work.
- Both LegRAA and Digital Courts 2.1 are currently in the pilot testing phase.
Q3. Indian athlete Seema Kaliramna clinched a bronze medal at the 2026 Glasgow Commonwealth Games in which athletics event?
(a) Shot Put
(b) Javelin Throw
(c) Discus Throw
(d) Hammer Throw
(e) Long Jump
Answer: c
Solution:
- India’s Seema Kaliramna won the bronze medal in the women’s discus throw at the Commonwealth Games 2026 in Glasgow.
- Seema secured the podium finish with a throw of 58.65 metres.
- Her performance added another medal to India’s athletics tally at the Glasgow Commonwealth Games
Q4. The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) facilitated the first-ever sea shipment of value-added flavoured Makhana from Bihar to which country in July 2026?
(a) United States
(b) United Kingdom
(c) Canada
(d) Australia
(e) United Arab Emirates
Answer: c
Solution:
- The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) facilitated the flag-off of the first-ever sea shipment of value-added flavoured Makhana (fox nuts) from Darbhanga, Bihar, to Canada.
- The landmark shipment was flagged off on 29 July 2026.
- APEDA functions under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India.
- The shipment represents an important step towards promoting Bihar’s premium agricultural produce in international markets.
- The export also expands Bihar’s basket of value-added agricultural products, helping move beyond exports of primary agricultural commodities.
- The initiative is expected to strengthen the global market presence of Makhana, an important agricultural product associated with Bihar.
Q5. According to the report released by the Competere Foundation, India jumped 25 spots in global rankings for structural and pro-competitive reforms (2010–2023). What is India’s revised global rank?
(a) 42nd
(b) 51st
(c) 72nd
(d) 65th
(e) 57th
Answer: e
Solution:
- India has risen 25 places, from 82nd to 57th, in a global assessment of structural and pro-competitive reforms, according to a report released by the Competere Foundation.
- The report is titled “India’s Next Growth Frontier: Reducing Anti-Competitive Market Distortions to Build on India’s 2010–2023 Reform Progress.”
- The assessment covers India’s reform trajectory during the period 2010 to 2023.
- India’s ranking improved from 82nd to 57th, reflecting progress in reducing market distortions and strengthening the competitiveness of the economy.
- The report assesses India’s performance through the Market Distortions Performance Index.
- The improvement has been attributed to sustained structural reforms and pro-competitive policy measures undertaken during the assessment period.
Three Pillars of Assessment
- The report evaluates market distortions across three broad pillars: property rights protection, domestic competition and international competition.
- Property rights protection examines the institutional environment relating to the protection and enforcement of property rights.
- Domestic competition focuses on conditions affecting competition and market functioning within the economy.
- International competition examines factors influencing India’s competitiveness and participation in global trade.
Report Launch
- The report was launched during a discussion titled “India’s Reform Trajectory, Market Distortions and the Next Frontier for Growth and Competitiveness.”
- The event was organised by the Centre for Trade and Investment Law (CTIL), Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT), New Delhi, in collaboration with the Competere Foundation for Trade and Competition Policy.
- The event was held at the India Habitat Centre, New Delhi.
- Discussions focused on India’s structural reform journey, policies for improving competitiveness and the next phase of reforms required to sustain growth amid an evolving global trade environment.
Q6. The second Diving Support Vessel (DSV), named ‘Nipun’, was delivered to the Indian Navy on 30 July 2026. Which shipbuilding company constructed this vessel?
(a) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL)
(b) Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE)
(c) Hindustan Shipyard Limited (HSL)
(d) Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL)
(e) Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL)
Answer: c
Solution:
- ‘Nipun’, the second Diving Support Vessel (DSV) built by Hindustan Shipyard Limited (HSL), was delivered to the Indian Navy on 30 July 2026 at Visakhapatnam.
- The vessel has been designed and constructed in accordance with the Classification Rules of the Indian Register of Shipping (IRS).
- The name ‘Nipun’ is derived from Sanskrit and signifies “one who is adept, capable and well versed in a particular discipline.”
- Nipun is a highly specialised vessel designed to undertake deep-sea diving operations and rescue operations at sea.
- The vessel is equipped with state-of-the-art diving equipment and has the capability to undertake Deep Sea Saturation Diving.
- A side diving stage has been provided to facilitate diving operations.
- The ship is equipped with Remotely Operated Vehicles (ROVs) that enhance its capabilities in diver monitoring and salvage operations.
- Nipun can also function as the Mother Ship for the Deep Submergence Rescue Vessel (DSRV).
- The DSRV capability enables the evacuation of personnel during an emergency involving a submarine, strengthening the Indian Navy’s submarine rescue capabilities.
Q7. The indigenously developed ‘Xtreme Weather Grade (XWG) Diesel’, designed to maintain fluidity at sub-zero temperatures as low as -42°C, was developed jointly by which of the following entities?
(a) Defense Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Bharat Petroleum
(b) Indian Army and Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs)
(c) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) and Indian Oil Corporation
(d) Heavy Vehicles Factory (HVF) and Hindustan Petroleum
(e) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways and Engineers India Limited
Answer: b
Solution:
- General Dhiraj Seth, Chief of the Army Staff (COAS), launched the indigenously developed Xtreme Weather Grade (XWG) Diesel on 31 July 2026 in New Delhi.
- XWG Diesel has been developed jointly by the Indian Army and Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs).
- The specialised diesel is designed to improve the mobility, safety and operational availability of combat and logistics vehicles operating under extreme climatic conditions.
- The development represents an important step towards Atmanirbhar Bharat by providing an indigenous fuel solution for military operations in severe weather conditions.
About Xtreme Weather Grade (XWG) Diesel
- Conventional diesel can thicken at extremely low temperatures and clog fuel filters, potentially affecting vehicle operations in high-altitude and snow-bound regions.
- XWG Diesel remains effective at temperatures as low as –42°C, helping maintain vehicle reliability in extreme cold.
- The fuel complies with BS-VI emission standards.
- It also conforms to IS 1460:2025 specifications.
- XWG Diesel can be used in the Indian Army’s existing vehicle fleet without engine modification or re-homologation.
- Its use is expected to enhance the reliability and operational readiness of combat and logistics vehicles deployed in high-altitude and extreme winter regions.
- Beyond military applications, the technology can benefit civilian vehicles and equipment operating in high-altitude and severe winter conditions.
Q8. Which country serves as the founding and leading nation as well as the permanent headquarters for the newly formed Multinational Maritime Defence Coalition aimed at protecting shipping in key waterways of West Asia in July, 2026?
(a) United Arab Emirates
(b) Egypt
(c) Saudi Arabia
(d) Bahrain
(e) Qatar
Answer: c
Solution:
- Saudi Arabia and 13 other countries have established the Multinational Maritime Defence Coalition to strengthen maritime security and protect shipping across strategically important waterways in West Asia.
- The coalition was announced following a meeting of military representatives from dozens of countries in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.
- The Multinational Maritime Defence Coalition will provide a framework for cooperation among participating countries in addressing growing challenges to global maritime security.
- The coalition aims to enhance maritime security, protect freedom of navigation, safeguard international trade routes and secure energy supply lines.
- Its efforts will focus particularly on protecting shared maritime interests in the Bab El-Mandeb Strait, Red Sea and Gulf of Aden.
- The coalition will conduct its activities in accordance with international law, while respecting the sovereignty of participating states.
- Member states have stated that the coalition is purely defensive in nature and does not target any state, alliance or international organisation.
- Saudi Arabia has been designated as the founding and leading state of the coalition.
- Saudi Arabia will also serve as the coalition’s permanent headquarters.
- The founding members named include Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, Bahrain, Qatar, Egypt, Jordan, Yemen, Nigeria, Sudan, Djibouti and Somalia.
Q9. Under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, what is the enhanced period of debarment for service providers convicted of involvement in examination offences?
(a) 2 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 8 years
(e) 10 years
Answer: d
Solution:
- Parliament has passed the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, introducing stricter penalties, time-bound investigations and dedicated fast-track courts to deal with unfair means and organised fraud in public examinations.
- The legislation strengthens the framework under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 by enhancing punishments and introducing new mechanisms for investigation, prosecution, trial and appeal.
Enhanced Punishments
- For persons resorting to unfair means, imprisonment is enhanced from 3–5 years to 5–10 years, while the maximum fine increases from ₹10 lakh to ₹50 lakh.
- For service providers involved in offences, the maximum fine increases from ₹1 crore to ₹5 crore.
- The maximum period for which such service providers can be debarred from conducting public examinations increases from 4 years to 8 years.
- For directors and senior management of service providers, imprisonment is enhanced from 3–10 years to 5–10 years, while the maximum fine increases from ₹1 crore to ₹5 crore.
- For organised crime, imprisonment is enhanced from 5–10 years to 7–10 years, while the maximum fine increases from ₹1 crore to ₹10 crore.
- The legislation also provides for seizure of properties of convicted offenders.
Investigation of Offences
- Under the 2024 Act, offences could be investigated by a police officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police (DSP), and the Central Government could refer cases to a Central Investigating Agency.
- The 2026 amendment additionally empowers the Central Government to constitute a dedicated Special Task Force (STF) for investigating examination fraud cases.
- Once an STF is constituted for a case, it will have exclusive responsibility for investigating that case.
- Investigation must be completed within two months.
Special Fast Track Courts
- Every State Government and Union Territory Administration must designate a Court of Session as a Special Fast Track Court for public examination fraud cases.
- Such designation will be made in consultation with the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court.
- The trial must be completed within three months from the filing of the chargesheet.
Appeals
- Appeals against judgments, sentences or orders of a Special Fast Track Court, except routine interim orders, will lie before the High Court.
- Such appeals will be heard by a two-judge bench of the High Court.
- The High Court should endeavour to dispose of the appeal within three months of its admission.
- Apart from the prescribed High Court route, no other appeal or revision against the Special Fast Track Court’s order can be filed before another court.
Q10. Under the provisions of the newly passed Prevention of Insults to National Honour (Amendment) Bill, 2026, showing disrespect or insult to the national song Vande Mataram attracts which of the following prescribed punishments?
(a) Imprisonment for up to 1 year, or a fine, or both
(b) Imprisonment for up to 2 years, or a fine, or both
(c) Imprisonment for up to 3 years, or a fine, or both
(d) Imprisonment for up to 5 years, or a fine, or both
(e) Imprisonment for up to 7 years without the option of a fine
Answer: c
Solution:
- Parliament has passed the Prevention of Insults to National Honour (Amendment) Bill, 2026.
- Minister of State for Home Affairs Nityanand Rai moved the Bill to further amend the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971.
- The key objective of the amendment is to provide Vande Mataram the same statutory protection as the National Anthem, Jana Gana Mana.
- The amendment strengthens the legal framework for safeguarding the honour and dignity associated with Vande Mataram.
- Offences covered under the amended legislation are punishable with imprisonment for up to three years, a fine, or both.









Daily Current Affairs and GK Updates (31...
Daily Current Affairs Quiz 31st July 202...
Daily Current Affairs Quiz 30th July 202...


