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Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th August 2026 for Banking & Competitive Exams

Daily Current Affairs: 5 August, 2026

Q1. Based on the Monetary Policy Update August 2026, what are the rates set for the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) and the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) / Bank Rate?

(a) SDF: 4.75 per cent, MSF / Bank Rate: 5.25 per cent

(b) SDF: 5.00 per cent, MSF / Bank Rate: 5.50 per cent

(c) SDF: 5.25 per cent, MSF / Bank Rate: 5.75 per cent

(d) SDF: 5.50 per cent, MSF / Bank Rate: 6.00 per cent

(e) SDF: 5.00 per cent, MSF / Bank Rate: 5.25 per cent

Answer: b
Solution:

  • The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) held its 62nd meeting from 3–5 August 2026 under the chairmanship of RBI Governor Shri Sanjay Malhotra.

Monetary Policy Decisions

  • The MPC unanimously decided to keep the policy Repo Rate unchanged at 5.25% under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF).
  • The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) Rate remains at 5.00%.
  • The Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) Rate remains at 5.50%.
  • The Bank Rate remains at 5.50%.
  • The MPC also decided to continue with the Neutral policy stance.

Domestic Economic Outlook

  • The Indian economy remains resilient despite global uncertainties.
  • High-frequency indicators point to steady domestic demand during Q1 of FY 2026–27.
  • Private consumption remained robust.
  • Investment activity continues to be supported by construction activity, capital goods production and bank credit growth.
  • External demand remained healthy with strong services exports and a recovery in merchandise exports.

GDP Growth Projection

  • Real GDP growth for FY 2026–27 has been projected at 6.7%.
  • Q1: 7.0%
  • Q2: 6.4%
  • Q3: 6.5%
  • Q4: 6.8%
  • Q1 of FY 2027–28: 7.3%

Inflation Outlook

  • CPI inflation increased to 4.4% in June 2026, after remaining below the RBI’s target for 16 consecutive months.
  • The increase was mainly driven by higher food and fuel inflation.
  • Core inflation (excluding food and fuel) remained at 3.9%.
  • Core inflation (excluding precious metals) remained between 2.3% and 2.5%.

CPI Inflation Projection

  • CPI inflation for FY 2026–27 is projected at 5.0%.
  • Q2: 4.7%
  • Q3: 5.9%
  • Q4: 5.5%
  • Q1 of FY 2027–28: 5.3%
  • Core inflation for FY 2026–27 is projected at 4.3%.

Q2. ICAR recently developed India’s first fully annotated Telomere-to-Telomere (T2T) reference genome for pigeonpea (Arhar/Tur). Which specific variety was used for this sequencing?

(a) Pusa 992

(b) Asha

(c) Maruti

(d) Laxmi

(e) BDN-2

Answer: b

Solution:

  • The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has achieved a major scientific breakthrough by developing India’s first fully annotated Telomere-to-Telomere (T2T) reference genome of pigeonpea (Cajanus cajan L. Millsp.) variety ‘Asha’.
  • Popularly known as Arhar or Tur, pigeonpea is one of India’s most important pulse crops and a major source of dietary protein, playing a vital role in the country’s food and nutritional security.
  • The breakthrough builds upon the pioneering work of ICAR–National Institute for Plant Biotechnology (ICAR-NIPB), New Delhi, in pigeonpea genomics.
  • In 2011, ICAR-NIPB published the world’s first draft genome of a pulse crop, pigeonpea variety ‘Asha’, which was also the first crop genome sequenced entirely in India.
  • An improved draft genome was released in 2017, while the latest achievement provides the complete Telomere-to-Telomere (T2T) genome sequence, representing the most comprehensive genetic blueprint of pigeonpea to date.

Features of the T2T Genome

  • The newly developed T2T genome contains 752.65 million base pairs (Mb) of DNA assembled into 92 contigs.
  • It provides a complete representation of all 11 chromosomes of pigeonpea.
  • The genome assembly has been designated NIPB_CcT2T_4.
  • It has been deposited in the National Center for Biotechnology Information (NCBI) database under Accession Number: GCF_000230855.1.
  • The genome was officially released on 20 April 2026.
  • The assembly includes all 11 centromeres and 22 telomeres, demonstrating complete chromosome-level assembly.
  • Comprehensive genome annotation identified 36,557 genes producing 48,008 mRNA (coding sequences).
  • Transcriptome (RNA sequence) mapping recorded more than 99.9% read alignment, confirming the genome’s high accuracy and completeness.

Q3. India’s first indigenous MA-104 cell line-based live attenuated African Swine Fever (ASF) vaccine was developed by scientists at which of the following ICAR institutions?

(a) ICAR–Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI), Izatnagar

(b) ICAR–National Research Centre on Pig (NRCP), Guwahati

(c) ICAR–National Institute of Veterinary Epidemiology and Disease Informatics (NIVEDI), Bengaluru

(d) ICAR–Central Coastal Agricultural Research Institute (CCARI), Goa

(e) ICAR–National Institute of High Security Animal Diseases (NIHSAD), Bhopal

Answer: e

Solution:

  • Scientists at the ICAR–National Institute of High Security Animal Diseases (ICAR-NIHSAD), Bhopal, have developed India’s first indigenous MA-104 Cell Line-Based Live Attenuated African Swine Fever (ASF) Vaccine for pigs.
  • The vaccine has been developed using a novel attenuated African Swine Fever Virus (ASFV) Genotype II with unique gene deletions in the MA-104 cell line, making it suitable for large-scale production.
  • The development marks a major breakthrough in veterinary research and animal disease control in India.

Laboratory and Field Validation

  • The vaccine has successfully undergone comprehensive laboratory evaluation for sterility, purity, safety, genetic stability, immunogenicity, protective efficacy and virulence reversion.
  • It was also field validated in collaboration with the Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying (DAHD) under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying, Government of India.
  • Field validation confirmed the vaccine’s safety and efficacy under practical field conditions.

Vaccination Protocol

  • The vaccine is recommended for healthy pigs above eight weeks of age.
  • It is administered as a 1 mL intramuscular injection.
  • A booster dose is given 14 days after the primary vaccination.

Q4. What does the acronym SHE-LEAPS stand for in the context of the rural enterprise management portal launched by the Ministry of Rural Development?

(a) Self-Help Enterprise for Livelihood Expansion and Asset Building in Rural States

(b) Self-Help Entrepreneur-Livelihoods and Enterprise Application for Prosperity and Sustainability

(c) State Help and Enterprise Level Empowerment Application for Rural Prosperity

(d) Sustainable Household Enterprise Livelihoods and Employment Application System

(e) Self-Help Expansion for Local Enterprise Acceleration and Prosperity Scheme

Answer: b

Solution:

  • The Self-Help Entrepreneur–Livelihoods and Enterprise Application for Prosperity and Sustainability (SHE-LEAPS) has been operationalised to support the monitoring and management of enterprises established by Self Help Group (SHG) entrepreneurs.
  • The application was launched on 29 June 2026 during the Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Sammelan organised by the Ministry of Rural Development.
  • SHE-LEAPS has been developed under the LokOS digital platform.
  • The application captures enterprise-related information of Self Help Group (SHG) entrepreneurs under the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM).
  • The platform facilitates the onboarding of enterprises and captures real-time enterprise data for effective management and monitoring.
  • It supports planning, monitoring and evidence-based decision-making for SHG enterprises.
  • The application is being implemented across 34 States and Union Territories through the State Rural Livelihood Missions (SRLMs).

Q5. Under the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2026, whose prior approval is required to register a birth or death if it is reported to the Registrar after 1 year but within 2 years of its occurrence?

(a) Gram Panchayat Secretary or Municipal Commissioner

(b) District Registrar or State Registrar

(c) District Magistrate, Sub-Divisional Magistrate, or Authorized Executive Magistrate

(d) Civil Judge Junior Division

(e) Chief Medical Officer (CMO)

Answer: c

  • Parliament has passed the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2026, with the Rajya Sabha approving it after its passage by the Lok Sabha.
  • The Bill was introduced by Minister of State for Home Affairs Nityanand Rai.
  • The legislation seeks to amend the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969.
  • The primary objective of the amendment is to strengthen provisions relating to delayed registration of births and deaths and encourage timely reporting of these vital events.

Major Provision

  • If a birth or death is reported more than one year but within two years after its occurrence, registration will be permitted only with the approval of the District Magistrate (DM), Sub-Divisional Magistrate (SDM), or an Executive Magistrate authorised by the District Magistrate.
  • Such registration will be allowed only after verification of the authenticity of the birth or death.

 Q6. According to recent updates, which Indian state has launched ‘Mission Clouded Leopard’ to protect its official State Animal?

(a) Assam

(b) Sikkim

(c) Meghalaya

(d) Nagaland

(e) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer:   c

Solution:

  • Meghalaya has launched Mission Clouded Leopard, a dedicated conservation programme for its State Animal, the Clouded Leopard.
  • The mission aims to ensure the long-term conservation of the Clouded Leopard through a comprehensive and science-based approach.
  • Mission Clouded Leopard will focus on habitat protection and restoration, scientific research, long-term monitoring, strengthening protection measures, improving landscape connectivity, capacity building of frontline staff, community participation, and public awareness.
  • The programme will be guided by the Meghalaya Clouded Leopard Action Plan, which is being prepared by the Forest and Environment Department, Government of Meghalaya.
  • As part of an ongoing scientific assessment, 21 individual Clouded Leopards have been identified in the Balpakram landscape.

Q7. Who is the incumbent President of the Republic of Naoero who announced the name change restoring the country’s native language identity?

(a) Taneti Maamau

(b) David Adeang

(c) Feleti Teo

(d) Sitiveni Rabuka

(e) Surangel Whipps Jr.

Answer: b

Solution:

  • The Pacific Island nation of Nauru has officially changed its name to the Republic of Naoero.
  • The announcement was made by President David Adeang.
  • According to the President, the new name reflects the traditional spelling and pronunciation in the country’s national language.
  • Along with the name change, the country’s international code will be changed from NRU to NRO.
  • Citizens of the country will now be known as dei-Naoero instead of Nauruans.
  • Internationally, the country was commonly pronounced as “Now-roo”, while the new official name Naoero is pronounced as “Now-ero.”

Q8. The Uttar Pradesh Government announced free travel facilities in UPSRTC state roadways buses for women of which age group in its First Supplementary Budget 2026–27?

(a) 45 years and above

(b) 50 years and above

(c) 55 years and above

(d) 60 years and above

(e) 65 years and above

Answer: d

Solution:

  • The Uttar Pradesh Government has announced free travel in Uttar Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation (UPSRTC) buses for women aged 60 years and above.
  • The initiative aims to enhance the mobility, social security and financial well-being of senior women citizens in the state.
  • To implement the scheme, the Government has made a budgetary provision of ₹100 crore in the First Supplementary Budget for the financial year 2026–27.
  • The allocated funds will be used to reimburse the Uttar Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation (UPSRTC) for providing free bus travel to eligible beneficiaries.

Q9. According to recent announcements, who became the first Indian woman scientist to be awarded the COSPAR Vikram Sarabhai Medal – 2026 at the 46th COSPAR Scientific Assembly in Florence, Italy?

(a) Dr. Ritu Karidhal Srivastava

(b) Prof. Annapurni Subramaniam

(c) Dr. Tessy Thomas

(d) Dr. N. Kalaiselvi

(e) Dr. V. R. Lalithambika

Answer: b

Solution:

  • Astrophysicist Dr. Annapurni Subramaniam has been awarded the COSPAR Vikram Sarabhai Medal – 2026.
  • She is the Director of the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA), Bengaluru, and also holds the additional charge as Director of the Centre for Nano and Soft Matter Sciences (CeNS).
  • The medal was presented during the 46th COSPAR Scientific Assembly, held in Florence, Italy.
  • The COSPAR Vikram Sarabhai Medal is awarded to scientists from developing countries for their outstanding contributions to space research.
  • The award is presented jointly by the Committee on Space Research (COSPAR) and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
  • The medal was instituted in 1990 in honour of Dr. Vikram Sarabhai, the founder of India’s space programme and ISRO.
  • Dr. Annapurni Subramaniam is the fourth Indian, the first Indian woman scientist, and only the third woman globally to receive this prestigious honour.
  • In 2024, she received the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar – Vigyan Shri in the Space Science and Technology category.

Previous Indian Recipients of the COSPAR Vikram Sarabhai Medal

  • U. R. Rao – 1996
  • Gurbax Singh Lakhina – 2014
  • Anil Bharadwaj – 2024
  • Annapurni Subramaniam – 2026

About the COSPAR Vikram Sarabhai Medal

  • Instituted: 1990
  • Named After: Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
  • Awarded By: Committee on Space Research (COSPAR) and Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
  • Purpose: To honour scientists from developing countries for outstanding contributions to space research
  • Eligibility: The candidate’s major contribution should have been made primarily during the five-year period ending one year before the COSPAR Scientific Assembly at which the medal is presented.

About COSPAR

  • Full Form: Committee on Space Research
  • Established: 1958
  • Affiliation: International Science Council (ISC) and the United Nations through the Committee on the Peaceful Uses of Outer Space (UN-COPUOS)
  • Scientific Assembly: Held biennially
  • Significance: One of the world’s largest forums for space scientists.

Q10. As per the Environmental Performance Index (EPI 2026) published by Yale University, which country secured the top rank globally with an overall score of 74.79?

(a) Luxembourg

(b) Finland

(c) Estonia

(d) United Kingdom

(e) Netherlands

Answer: c

Solution:

  • In July 2026, Yale University released the Environmental Performance Index (EPI) 2026.
  • India ranked 176th out of 177 countries with an overall score of 22.46, making it the second-lowest ranked country in the index.
  • India’s score was below the regional average of 31.81.
  • Despite the low ranking, India improved its overall score by 7.47 points over the last 10 years.
  • Estonia retained the 1st position with an overall score of 74.79.
  • Luxembourg ranked 2nd with 74.24, while the United Kingdom (UK) ranked 3rd with 71.51.

About Environmental Performance Index (EPI) 2026

  • The Environmental Performance Index (EPI) is released by Yale University.
  • The index evaluates countries based on their environmental health, ecosystem vitality, and climate change performance.
  • The top five countries in EPI 2026 are all from Europe.

Top 5 Countries

  • 1st: Estonia (74.79)
  • 2nd: Luxembourg (74.24)
  • 3rd: United Kingdom (71.51)
  • 4th: Finland
  • 5th: Netherlands

Bottom 5 Countries

  • 177th: Laos (21.78)
  • 176th: India (22.46)
  • 175th: Bangladesh (23.46)
  • 174th: Mali (23.56)
  • 173rd: Viet Nam (23.82)

India’s Performance

  • India performed poorly in the Environmental Health segment.
  • India ranked 174th in both Air Quality and Biodiversity indicators.
  • Air Quality declined by 0.15 points over the last decade.
  • India performed comparatively better in Climate Change, ranking 130th, with an improvement of 13.98 points over the last 10 years.
  • India ranked 141st in both Waste Management and Sanitation.
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