Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th June 2026 for Banking & Competitive Exams |

Daily Current Affairs: 14 June, 2026

Q1. In June, 2026, The Government of India has constituted a High-Level Technical Expert Committee on Labour Statistics to overhaul data precision in the employment sector. Who has been appointed as the Chairman of this committee?

(a) Dr. Rajiv Kumar

(b) Professor Alakh N. Sharma

(d) Professor Arvind Panagariya

(e) Dr. S. P. Mukherjee

Answer: b

Solution:

The Government of India has appointed noted economist Professor Alakh N. Sharma as the Chairman of the High-Level Technical Expert Committee on Labour Statistics.
The Committee has been constituted to strengthen and periodically review labour market indicators and assess the evolving structure of India’s labour market.
Its primary objective is to improve the quality, coverage, and reliability of labour statistics to support evidence-based policymaking.
The Committee will focus on developing more granular, timely, and internationally comparable labour statistics in line with global best practices.
It will review existing labour market indicators and recommend measures to enhance the collection, analysis, and dissemination of employment-related data.

Q2. The newly launched “Pariksha Karmayogi” training framework is primarily designed to improve the execution quality of which type of testing methodology?

(a) Fully Automated Computer-Based Tests (CBT)

(b) Offline, Pen-and-Paper-Based Examinations

(d) Viva-Voce and Personal Interview Formats

(e) Hybrid Adaptive Testing Models

Answer: b

Solution:

The National Testing Agency (NTA) has launched the ‘Pariksha Karmayogi: Capacity-Building Programme for Examination Officials’ on the iGOT Karmayogi Bharat platform.
The initiative aims to strengthen the supervision and invigilation processes for NTA examinations and ensure the smooth, secure, transparent, and standardised conduct of offline, pen-and-paper-based examinations.
The programme is specifically designed for examination functionaries, particularly Centre Superintendents and Invigilators, who are responsible for conducting NTA examinations, including NEET (UG).
The training programme consists of four comprehensive modules covering the entire examination lifecycle.
Module 1 introduces the programme and explains the roles and responsibilities of examination officials in ensuring fairness, transparency, integrity, and accountability throughout the examination process.
Module 2 focuses on pre-examination preparedness, including examination centre readiness, security arrangements, logistics, and adherence to Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs).
Module 3 covers examination-day operations, providing detailed guidance on activities before, at the beginning of, during, and after the examination.
Module 4 serves as a Quick Reference Guide, offering a concise summary of key instructions, protocols, and responsibilities for examination officials.

Q3. The unique three-day agricultural festival ‘Raja’, which honors womanhood and symbolises the fertility and regenerative cycle of Mother Earth, is predominantly celebrated in which Indian state?

(a) West Bengal

(b) Assam

(d) Jharkhand

(e) Chhattisgarh

Answer: c

Solution:

The three-day Raja Festival began across Odisha on 14 June 2026 with the celebration of Pahili Raja, marking the onset of the monsoon season and the beginning of the Odia month of Ashadha.
Raja is one of Odisha’s most cherished cultural festivals, symbolising reverence for Mother Earth, womanhood, and the fertility and regenerative cycle of nature.
The festival derives its name from “Rajaswala”, reflecting the traditional belief that Mother Earth, like women, undergoes a period of rest and rejuvenation during these days.
As a mark of respect for nature, agricultural activities remain suspended throughout the festival.
Women and girls are the focal point of the celebrations. They wear new clothes, decorate their feet with alta, apply mehendi on their hands, and are relieved from household chores to enjoy the festivities.
In villages, Raja swings tied to trees become the centre of celebrations, where girls sing traditional Raja songs and participate in community festivities.
Boys celebrate by playing traditional games such as Bagudi, Ludo, and card games.
Families prepare and share a variety of traditional Odia delicacies, including Poda Pitha, Arisa Pitha, Chakuli Pitha, and the popular Raja Paan, with relatives, neighbours, and friends.
The festival showcases Odisha’s rich agrarian heritage, celebrates womanhood, and reflects the state’s deep respect for nature and its life-sustaining processes.

Q4. World Blood Donor Day is observed globally every year on 14 June. What is the official designated theme for the World Blood Donor Day 2026 campaign?

(a) 20 Years of Celebrating Giving: Thank You, Blood Donors!

(b) Give Blood, Give Plasma, Share Life, Share Often

(d) Safe Blood Saves Lives: Donate Today

(e) Blood Donation is an Act of Solidarity

Answer: c

Solution:

World Blood Donor Day is observed every year on 14 June to honour voluntary, unpaid blood donors whose life-saving contributions support healthcare systems across the world.
The day aims to raise awareness about the importance of safe blood and blood products and to encourage more people to become regular voluntary blood donors.
The theme for World Blood Donor Day 2026 is “One Drop of Humanity. Give Blood. Save Lives.”
Voluntary blood donation plays a vital role in saving lives during medical emergencies, childbirth, surgeries, cancer treatment, and the management of various chronic and life-threatening diseases.
World Blood Donor Day was first observed in 2004 and was officially recognized by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 2005.
The observance is held on 14 June to commemorate the birth anniversary of Karl Landsteiner, the Austrian scientist who discovered the ABO blood group system in 1901.
Karl Landsteiner, along with Alexander S. Wiener, identified the Rhesus (Rh) factor in 1937, making blood transfusions significantly safer.
For his pioneering work in blood group classification, Karl Landsteiner was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine.

Q5. The Department of Posts launched its first operational drone-based transmission of mail and parcels in June, 2026. This service was launched to link which two specific postal facilities?

(a) Shimla GPO and Kufri BPO

(b) Mandi Head Post Office and Rehardhar Branch Post Office

(d) Kullu Head Post Office and Manali Branch Post Office

(e) Solan HPO and Chail Branch Post Office

Answer: b

Solution:

Under the leadership of Union Minister for Communications and Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) Jyotiraditya M. Scindia, the Department of Posts launched drone-based transmission of mail and parcels in Himachal Pradesh on 12 June 2026.
The service has been introduced on the Mandi Head Post Office–Rehardhar Branch Post Office route, marking the first operational drone-based postal delivery route under the new initiative.
The initiative was launched in response to feedback received by the Union Minister from Gramin Dak Sevaks and Postal Assistants, who highlighted the need for faster and more efficient postal connectivity in remote and difficult terrains.
The project aims to leverage drone technology to improve the speed, reliability, and accessibility of postal services in geographically challenging regions.
The Department of Posts plans to expand drone-based mail transmission to around 150 identified routes across Himachal Pradesh and Assam over the next two to three months.

Q6. Recently, in June, 2026, DRDO conducted three consecutive successful flight-tests that vaulted India into an elite group of nations capable of intercepting long-range incoming threats. Up to what maximum classification of ballistic missiles can this newly demonstrated BMD architecture engage?

(a) Short-Range Ballistic Missiles (SRBM)

(b) Medium-Range Ballistic Missiles (MRBM)

(d) Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles (ICBM)

(e) Tactical Quasi-Ballistic Missiles

Answer: d

Solution:

The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted three consecutive flight tests on 10 and 11 June 2026, demonstrating India’s multi-layered Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) capability and the maiden flight test of the Naval Anti-Ship Missile–Medium Range (NASM-MR).
The successful trials showcased India’s ability to defend against long-range ballistic missile threats while strengthening the Indian Navy’s anti-ship strike capability.
During the tests, the Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) system successfully intercepted and destroyed its designated targets, validating the performance of advanced interceptor technologies developed under Phase II of India’s BMD programme.
With these successful trials, India has joined the elite group of nations capable of defending against threats up to Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles (ICBMs).

Naval Anti-Ship Missile–Medium Range (NASM-MR)

NASM-MR is a subsonic, sea-skimming anti-ship missile being developed by DRDO for the Indian Navy.
The missile is designed to engage small- and medium-sized naval targets, including frigates, corvettes, and destroyers.
It will be developed in multiple variants, including ship-launched, air-launched, and submarine-launched versions.
NASM-MR complements the existing Naval Anti-Ship Missile–Short Range (NASM-SR), providing the Navy with layered anti-ship strike capabilities.

Features of NASM-MR

Type: Subsonic, sea-skimming anti-ship missile
Developer: DRDO
User: Indian Navy
Range: Up to 350 km
Engine: Small Gas Turbine Jet Engine (SGTJE)
Warhead: More than 200 kg
Guidance System: Active Radar Seeker combined with an Imaging Infrared (IIR) Seeker
Capability: All-weather precision strike against hostile warships

Multi-Layered Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) System

The latest trials involved advanced AD-series interceptors developed under Phase II of India’s Ballistic Missile Defence Programme.
The system is designed to intercept and neutralize Intermediate-Range Ballistic Missiles (IRBMs) and Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles (ICBMs) with ranges of up to the 5,000-km class.