Daily Current Affairs Quiz 25th July 2026 for Banking & Competitive Exams |

Daily Current Affairs: 25 July, 2026

Q1. The Gas Turbine Research Establishment (GTRE) under DRDO successfully developed India’s first indigenous 350 kg thrust class Expendable Turbojet Engine. Which private sector defense firm was selected as the manufacturing and assembly partner for realizing this project?

(a) Bharat Forge Limited

(b) Azad Engineering, Hyderabad

(d) Paras Defence and Space Technologies

(e) Tata Advanced Systems Limited

Answer: b

Solution:

The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has successfully developed India’s first indigenous Expendable Turbo Jet Engine of the 350 kg thrust class.
The engine was designed by the Gas Turbine Research Establishment (GTRE), a laboratory of DRDO.
Azad Engineering, Hyderabad was identified by GTRE as the industry partner for the manufacturing and assembly of the engine.
On 22 July 2026, the engine was successfully realized and delivered to GTRE by Azad Engineering.
The achievement marks a significant milestone for India’s aerospace and defence ecosystem and reflects the successful collaboration between India’s scientific and industrial communities.
The delivery represents the culmination of years of precision engineering, advanced manufacturing, and technological innovation.
Jet engine technology is regarded as one of the most sophisticated engineering disciplines in the world and is mastered by only a handful of countries.
The development of this indigenous engine demonstrates India’s growing capabilities in advanced propulsion systems, metallurgy, and aerospace manufacturing.

Q2. The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted the maiden flight-test of the indigenous ‘Kusha’ defense system in July, 2026. Under which of the following tactical missile categories is ‘Kusha’ classified?

(a) Short-Range Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM)

(b) Medium-Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM)

(d) Hypersonic Submarine-Launched Cruise Missile (SLCM)

(e) Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM)

Answer: c

Solution:

The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted the maiden flight-test of the ‘Kusha’ Long-Range Surface-to-Air Missile (LR-SAM) on 23 July 2026.
The test was carried out from APJ Abdul Kalam Island off the coast of Odisha.
The maiden flight-test was conducted against an electronic target simulating a high-speed and high-altitude aerial threat.
The missile system successfully intercepted and neutralized the target, validating its operational capabilities.
The Kusha missile system is designed to counter a wide range of aerial threats.
It is capable of engaging and neutralizing fighter aircraft, missiles, unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs), and large enemy aircraft across a wide range and altitude envelope.
All major components of the weapon system, including the missiles, radars, and command-and-control centre, have been developed indigenously by various DRDO laboratories in collaboration with Indian industry partners.
The successful maiden test marks a major milestone in strengthening India’s indigenous air defence capabilities.

Q3. Following the voluntary suspension of Arkady Dvorkovich due to EU sanctions, five-time World Champion Viswanathan Anand assumed charge as the Interim President of FIDE. Prior to this role, which position was he holding in FIDE since August 2022?

(a) Chairman of the Athletes’ Commission

(b) FIDE Vice President

(d) Chief Executive Officer (CEO)

(e) Head of the Global Strategy Board

Answer: c

Solution:

Five-time World Chess Champion Viswanathan Anand has assumed charge as the Interim President of the International Chess Federation (FIDE).
Anand took over the role after FIDE President Arkady Dvorkovich of Russia was placed on the latest European Union sanctions list.
He will serve as Interim President for as long as Dvorkovich remains subject to the restrictive measures under applicable Swiss and European Union laws and regulations.
Anand is widely regarded as one of the greatest chess players in history and has played a pivotal role in popularizing chess in India and globally.
Prior to becoming the interim head, Viswanathan Anand held the position of Deputy President of FIDE since August 2022.

Q4. The Union Cabinet approved a landmark flagship scheme in the chemical manufacturing sector announced during the FY 2026–27 Budget, abbreviated as BHAVYA-Rasayan. What does BHAVYA stand for?

(a) Bharat Heavy Advanced Logistics Yojana for Agrochemicals

(b) Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojana Rasayan

(d) Bharat Industrial Value Addition and Yielding Assets

(e) Bharatiya Audyogik Vyapar and Aawas Yojana

Answer: b

Solution:

The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has approved the Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojana Rasayan (BHAVYA-Rasayan) Scheme for establishing three dedicated Chemical Parks in the country.
The scheme was announced in the Union Budget 2026–27.
The scheme will have a total financial outlay of ₹3,030 crore.
Out of the total outlay, ₹3,000 crore will be used for establishing Common Infrastructure Facilities and Basic Utilities within the chemical parks, while ₹30 crore has been allocated for administrative expenditure.
The scheme will be implemented for five years, from FY 2026–27 to FY 2030–31.
The Central Government will provide a grant of up to ₹1,000 crore per Chemical Park.
The grant is subject to a minimum contribution of ₹500 crore from the concerned State Government.
Under the scheme, the Centre will facilitate the development of three dedicated Chemical Parks by State Governments through the Challenge Route.
Each Chemical Park must have a minimum contiguous area of 8 sq. km. (2,000 acres) of encumbrance-free land.
The parks will provide plug-and-play infrastructure for the chemical industry.
The scheme aims to promote the development of the chemical industry across the upstream, downstream, and ancillary value chains, leading to more efficient resource utilization and lower logistics costs.
Shared infrastructure and utilities will improve cost competitiveness and enhance the global competitiveness of India’s chemical industry.
The scheme will help integrate the Indian chemical sector into Global Value Chains (GVCs), leading to higher exports and import substitution.
It will promote environmentally sustainable industrial development through centralized waste management and treatment facilities.

Q5. According to the official data released by the Ministry of Commerce & Industry in July 2026, what was the total value of India’s services exports recorded during the fiscal year 2025–26?

(a) USD 341.1 Billion

(b) USD 387.5 Billion

(d) USD 510.8 Billion

(e) USD 254.5 Billion

Answer: c

Solution:

India’s services exports increased to USD 421.3 billion in FY 2025-26, reflecting sustained growth over the last five years.
The major contributors to this growth were Telecommunications, Computer and Information Services and Business Services.
The Government has been expanding global market access for Indian service providers through Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) and various trade promotion initiatives.

India’s Services Exports Trend

2021-22: USD 254.5 billion
2022-23: USD 325.3 billion
2023-24: USD 341.1 billion
2024-25: USD 387.5 billion
2025-26: USD 421.3 billion

Major Contributors to Services Exports in FY 2025-26

Telecommunications, Computer and Information Services
- Exports: USD 206.6 billion
- Share in Total Services Exports: 49.03%
Business Services
- Exports: USD 124.2 billion
- Share in Total Services Exports: 29.5%
Telecommunications, Computer and Information Services remained the largest contributor to India’s services exports, accounting for nearly half of total exports.
Exports from this sector increased from USD 125.6 billion in 2021-22 to USD 206.6 billion in 2025-26.
Business Services emerged as the second-largest contributor, with exports rising from USD 58.9 billion in 2021-22 to USD 124.2 billion in 2025-26.

Q6. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approved the construction of the 3rd and 4th lines of the Ballari – Guntakal section. What is the total estimated cost and total length addition for this railway project?

(a) ₹2,150 crore; 85 km

(b) ₹1,264 crore; 46 km

(d) ₹1,800 crore; 60 km

(e) ₹3,050 crore; 110 km

Answer: b

Solution:

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has approved the 3rd and 4th railway lines on the Ballari–Guntakal section in Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
The project will be implemented at an estimated cost of ₹1,264 crore.
The project has been planned under the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan with a focus on enhancing multi-modal connectivity and logistics efficiency through integrated planning and stakeholder consultations.
It aims to provide seamless connectivity for the movement of people, goods, and services.
The project covers three districts across Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
It will increase the existing Indian Railways network by approximately 46 km.

Q7. On July 24, 2026, India observed its 166th Income Tax Day (Aaykar Diwas). Who among the following historical figures introduced Income Tax in British India on July 24, 1860?

(a) Lord Curzon

(b) Sir James Wilson

(d) Lord Dalhousie

(e) Sir Charles Wood

Answer: b

Solution:

Income Tax Day (Aaykar Diwas) is observed every year on 24 July in India.
Income Tax Day 2026 is being observed on 24 July 2026, marking the 166th anniversary of the introduction of income tax in India.
The day commemorates the establishment and evolution of the Income Tax Department and highlights India’s journey towards a transparent, technology-driven, and taxpayer-friendly tax administration.
It recognizes the contributions of taxpayers and promotes tax awareness, voluntary compliance, and responsible tax participation in nation-building.

History of Income Tax Day

On 24 July 1860, Sir James Wilson, the first Finance Member of the Governor-General’s Council, introduced Income Tax in British India.
The tax was introduced to address the financial crisis that followed the Revolt of 1857.
The first income tax was introduced as a temporary measure to generate revenue for the government.
The Income Tax Act, 1886 established a more structured framework for income taxation in India.
The Income Tax Act, 1922 reorganized tax administration and strengthened the legal framework for direct taxation.
After Independence, the Income Tax Act, 1961 replaced the 1922 Act and came into effect on 1 April 1962.
The Income Tax Act, 1961 continues to serve as the principal legislation governing income tax in India.
The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) administers direct taxes under the Ministry of Finance.
In 2010, the Income Tax Department began celebrating Aaykar Diwas to mark 150 years of income tax in India.

Q8. The 23rd edition of the Commonwealth Games in Glasgow, Scotland, features a significantly reduced sports program compared to previous editions. How many total sports disciplines are included in the Glasgow 2026 roster?

(a) 19

(b) 15

(d) 10

(e) 8

Answer: d

Solution:

The 23rd Commonwealth Games began in Glasgow, Scotland, on 23 July 2026 with a spectacular and colourful opening ceremony.
King Charles III officially declared the Games open in the presence of Queen Camilla, British Prime Minister Andy Burnham, and Commonwealth Sport President Donald Rukare at the OVO Hydro Arena.
Teams from 74 nations and territories are participating in the 10-day multi-sport event.
The Indian contingent, led by flag bearer Mirabai Chanu and ceremonial baton bearer Lovlina Borgohain, marched into the OVO Hydro Arena carrying miniature tricolours.
The Indian athletes received a warm welcome from the Glasgow crowd as they began their Commonwealth Games campaign.
India has fielded a contingent of 125 athletes, including para-athletes.
The Glasgow Commonwealth Games 2026 feature 10 sports, which is nine fewer than the Birmingham 2022 Commonwealth Games.
Competitions are being conducted across four venues located within an eight-mile corridor.
The sports featured in the Games are athletics, swimming, 3×3 basketball, track cycling, weightlifting, lawn bowls, artistic gymnastics, netball, boxing, and judo.
India won 61 medals at the 2022 Commonwealth Games in Birmingham.
This edition presents a different challenge for participating nations due to a reduced sporting programme and fewer medal events.

Q9. Who among the following IAS officers has been appointed as the Secretary of the Department of Higher Education under the Ministry of Education?

(a) T K Anil Kumar

(b) Sanjay Kumar

(d) Naresh Pal Gangwar

(e) Rajesh Verma

Answer: d

Solution:

Naresh Pal Gangwar has been appointed as the Secretary, Department of Higher Education.
He is a 1994-batch IAS officer of the Rajasthan cadre.
Prior to this appointment, he was serving as Secretary, Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying.
T. K. Anil Kumar has been appointed as the Secretary, Department of School Education and Literacy.
He is a 1995-batch IAS officer of the Karnataka cadre.
Before his appointment, he was serving as Additional Secretary in the Ministry of Rural Development.

Q10. Who has been appointed as the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) Designate of IT giant Infosys, set to formally take charge in April 2027?

(a) Salil Parekh

(b) Nandan Nilekani

(d) Rajesh Gopinathan

(e) Ashiss Kumar Dash

Answer: e

Solution:

The Board of Infosys has appointed Ashiss Kumar Dash as the CEO Designate of the company.
His appointment will become effective from 1 April 2027.
Ashiss Kumar Dash is currently serving as Executive Vice President (EVP) and Global Head – Services, Utilities, Resources, Energy & Enterprise Sustainability at Infosys.
He will succeed Salil Parekh as the Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer (MD & CEO) of Infosys.
Salil Parekh has been leading Infosys since 2018 and will complete his second term in 2027, ending a leadership tenure of over nine years.
The appointment reflects Infosys’ focus on leadership continuity and long-term strategic growth.