Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th October, 2026 for Banking & Competitive Exams

Daily Current Affairs: 16 October 2026

 Q1. The Union Cabinet approved the continuation of the National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) for five years (2026-27 to 2030-31) with a total outlay of ₹53,428 crore. Under the approved restructuring, what is the new name of the NSAP scheme?

(a) Pradhan Mantri Samajik Suraksha Yojana

(b) Pradhan Mantri Samajik Sahayata Yojana

(c) Pradhan Mantri Divyangjan Sahayata Yojana

(d) Pradhan Mantri Kalyan Sahayata Yojana

(e) Pradhan Mantri Vridhavastha Sahayata Yojana

Answer: b

Solution:

• The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, approved the continuation of the National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) for five years, from 2026–27 to 2030–31.
• The total approved outlay is ₹53,428 crore.
• The programme will be renamed the Pradhan Mantri Samajik Sahayata Yojana.
• The approval includes changes to the eligibility criteria, coverage and assistance provided under the disability pension scheme.
• The old-age and widow pension schemes and the National Family Benefit Scheme will continue in their existing form.
• The approval is expected to benefit approximately 3.20 crore beneficiaries across all 36 States and Union Territories.
• Revised guidelines covering eligibility, beneficiary numbers and assistance rates under the disability pension scheme are to be issued and implemented within three months.

Renamed Schemes

Changes in Disability Pension

• Monthly assistance under the disability pension scheme will be ₹375 for beneficiaries aged 0–79 years and ₹625 for those aged 80 years and above.
• The benchmark disability eligibility criterion has been reduced from 80% to 40%.
• The minimum age criterion has been removed, allowing eligibility from birth.
• The changes align with the provisions of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.
• NSAP was launched on 15 August 1995 to provide social assistance to poor households, in line with Article 41 of the Constitution, under the Directive Principles of State Policy.
• The programme provides 100% Central assistance to ensure uniform availability of support across the country.

 Q2. The Central Government approved India’s accession to the Southern Indian Ocean Fisheries Agreement (SIOFA). SIOFA covers non-migratory fishery resources across international waters in the Southern Indian Ocean. In which year was the SIOFA treaty originally signed in Rome?

(a) 1996

(b) 2003

(c) 2006

(d) 2012

(e) 2022

Answer: c

Solution:

• The Central Government approved India’s accession to the Southern Indian Ocean Fisheries Agreement (SIOFA) to strengthen its role in global fisheries governance.
• The decision follows the Government of India’s Guidelines for High Sea Fisheries issued in December 2025.
• Accession will provide a regional framework for Indian fishing vessels to operate in international waters and access high-value marine resources sustainably.
• Indian-flagged vessels and enterprises will be able to undertake authorised fishing of squids, toothfish, alfonsino and other non-migratory fish stocks within SIOFA’s jurisdiction.
• India will gain greater participation in scientific assessments, research programmes and decision-making through bodies such as the Scientific Committee and Compliance Committee.
• India’s participation in the High Seas Boarding and Inspection (HSBI) Scheme will also support maritime oversight and regional security.
• India had been a Cooperating Non-Contracting Party (CNCP) to SIOFA since 2022. Accession as a Contracting Party will expand its participation in the agreement’s governance and fisheries-management activities.

About SIOFA

• Full Form: Southern Indian Ocean Fisheries Agreement.
• Signed: 2006 in Rome, Italy.
• Entered into force: 2012.
• Objectives: Ensure the long-term conservation and sustainable use of fishery resources, and promote sustainable fisheries development in the agreement area.
• Coverage: Fish, molluscs, crustaceans and other sedentary species within its area, excluding highly migratory species listed in Annex I of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
• Governing Body: Meeting of the Parties, comprising all Contracting Parties and meeting at least annually.
• Scientific Committee: Conducts scientific assessments, promotes cooperation and provides scientific advice.
• Secretariat: Coordinates administrative implementation and maintains records of meetings and proceedings.

 Q3. The International Day of Rural Women was observed on 15 October 2026 under the theme “Rural Women Farmers Caring for Mother Nature”. In which year was the first International Day of Rural Women observed by the United Nations?

(a) 1995

(b) 2000

(c) 2005

(d) 2008

(e) 2012

Answer: d

Solution:

• International Day of Rural Women 2026 observed on 15 October every year.
• Theme for 2026: “Rural Women Farmers Caring for Mother Nature”.
• The day recognises the contribution of rural women to agriculture, food security, rural development and poverty reduction.
• The 2026 theme highlights their role in conserving seeds, protecting biodiversity, managing water resources and restoring degraded land.
• The first International Day of Rural Women was observed on 15 October 2008.
• It was established by the United Nations General Assembly through Resolution 62/136 on 18 December 2007.
• The resolution recognises the important contribution of rural women, including Indigenous women, to agricultural and rural development, food security and poverty eradication.

 Q4. Indian wrestler Vishvajit Ramchandra More created history by winning India’s first-ever silver medal in the Greco-Roman category at the U23 World Championships. In which weight category did he compete in the finals in Las Vegas?

(a) Men’s 50kg

(b) Men’s 55kg

(c) Men’s 60kg

(d) Men’s 63kg

(e) Men’s 67kg

Answer: b

Solution:

• Indian wrestler Vishvajit Ramchandra More won the silver medal in the men’s 55 kg Greco-Roman category at the U23 World Championships in Las Vegas, USA.
• He narrowly lost the final 12–13 to Georgia’s Koba Karumidze.
• According to the supplied material, this was India’s first-ever silver medal and first appearance in a Greco-Roman final at the U23 World Championships.

 Q5. Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan inaugurated KAUMARACON 2026 (the 3rd International Conference on Kaumarabhritya) at the All India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA) in New Delhi. What domain of Ayurveda does ‘Kaumarabhritya’ deal with?

(a) Geriatrics and rejuvenation

(b) Paediatrics and child healthcare

(c) Surgery and surgical techniques

(d) Toxicology and poison management

(e) ENT and ophthalmology

Answer: b

Solution:

• Vice-President of India C. P. Radhakrishnan inaugurated KAUMARACON 2026 on 15 October 2026.
• The event is being held at the All India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA), Sarita Vihar, New Delhi.
• The third International Conference on Kaumarabhritya is scheduled from 15 to 17 October 2026.
• The conference focuses on Ayurveda-based child healthcare, research and clinical practice.
• The event also marks the 10th Foundation Day of AIIA.
• Kaumarabhritya is the branch of Ayurveda concerned with paediatrics and child health.

 Q6. India’s largest integrated phenol and acetone plant was inaugurated at Haldia, West Bengal, involving an investment of ₹6,000 crore. Which entity developed this project as a wholly owned subsidiary of Haldia Petrochemicals Limited?

(a) Dhunseri Ventures Limited

(b) Adperma Private Limited

(c) Chatterjee International Limited

(d) Haldia Chemicals Private Limited

(e) Eastern India Petrochemicals Limited

Answer: b

Solution:

• India’s largest integrated phenol and acetone plant was inaugurated in Haldia, West Bengal, on 14 October 2026.
• The facility was developed by Adperma Private Limited, a wholly owned subsidiary of Haldia Petrochemicals Limited.
• The project involved an investment of ₹6,000 crore.
• It is the first phenol manufacturing facility on India’s eastern coast.

 Q7. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approved the strategic restructuring of IDBI Bank Ltd. Under this transaction, what percentage of equity stake in IDBI Bank will be acquired by M/s 10955230 Canada Inc. (Fairfax Financial Holdings Ltd.) for ₹52,878 crore?

(a) 30.24%

(b) 30.48%

(c) 51.00%

(d) 60.72%

(e) 74.00%

Answer: d

Solution:

• The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), in its meeting on 14 October 2026, approved Fairfax Financial Holdings Ltd.’s subsidiary, 10955230 Canada Inc., as the strategic buyer for IDBI Bank.
• The approved purchase consideration is approximately ₹52,878.08 crore for a combined 60.72% equity stake.
• The stake comprises 30.48% held by the Government of India and 30.24% held by the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC).
• Following the transaction, the Government of India will retain a 15% stake, while LIC will retain a 19% stake in IDBI Bank.
• The government described the transaction as strategic restructuring, rather than strategic disinvestment.
• According to the government’s announcement, the transaction would represent the largest foreign direct investment in India’s financial sector.
• Before the transaction, the Government of India held approximately 45.5% of IDBI Bank, while LIC held approximately 49.2%.

Q8. Prakash Rajpurohit, a 2010-batch IAS officer from the Rajasthan cadre, was appointed as Deputy Election Commissioner in the Election Commission of India (ECI). Till which year will he serve in this post?

(a) April 2028

(b) October 2028

(c) April 2030

(d) December 2030

(e) March 2031

Answer: c

Solution:

• Prakash Rajpurohit, a 2010-batch IAS officer of the Rajasthan cadre, was appointed Deputy Election Commissioner in the Election Commission of India (ECI) in October 2026.
• According to the Ministry of Personnel’s order dated 10 October 2026, he will serve until 8 April 2030.

Q9. According to MoSPI’s Monthly Bulletin of the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) for September 2026, what was the overall Unemployment Rate (UR) recorded for persons aged 15 years and above under the Current Weekly Status (CWS) approach?

(a) 3.9%

(b) 4.2%

(c) 5.0%

(d) 6.0%

(e) 6.9%

Answer: c

Solution:

• The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) released the PLFS Monthly Bulletin for September 2026 on 15 October 2026.
• The data presented below relate to persons aged 15 years and above, using the Current Weekly Status (CWS) approach.

Key Indicators

1. Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR)

• The overall LFPR for persons aged 15 years and above stood at 55.5% in September 2026, compared with 55.6% in August 2026.
• Rural LFPR declined to 58.0% from 58.2%, while urban LFPR increased to 50.7% from 50.4%.
• On a year-on-year basis, overall LFPR increased by 0.2 percentage points, from 55.3% in September 2025 to 55.5% in September 2026.
• Rural LFPR increased by 0.6 percentage points to 58.0%, while urban LFPR declined by 0.2 percentage points to 50.7%.

2. Female Labour Force Participation Rate

• Overall female LFPR stood at 34.6% in September 2026, up 0.5 percentage points from 34.1% in September 2025.
• Rural female LFPR increased by 1.0 percentage point year-on-year to 38.9%.
• Urban female LFPR rose from 25.4% in August to 25.9% in September 2026, its highest level since October 2025.
• Compared with September 2025, urban female LFPR remained broadly stable, declining slightly from 26.1% to 25.9%.

3. Worker Population Ratio (WPR)

• The overall WPR increased by 0.3 percentage points year-on-year to 52.7% in September 2026.
• Rural WPR increased by 0.7 percentage points year-on-year to 55.5%, while urban WPR remained broadly stable at around 47%.
• Urban WPR reached 47.2%, its highest level since October 2025.
• Urban male WPR increased from 70.7% to 71.0%, while urban female WPR rose from 23.2% to 23.5% during September.
• At the all-India level, male WPR increased by 0.4 percentage points year-on-year to 73.6%, while female WPR rose by 0.5 percentage points to 32.8%.

4. Unemployment Rate (UR)

• The overall unemployment rate remained stable at 5.0% in September 2026, down 0.2 percentage points from September 2025.
• Rural UR stood at 4.2%, compared with 4.1% in August and 4.6% in September 2025.
• Urban UR increased slightly to 6.9%, from 6.8% in August and 6.8% in September 2025.
• Overall male UR declined by 0.2 percentage points year-on-year to 4.9%.
• Overall female UR declined by 0.3 percentage points year-on-year to 5.2%.
• Rural male UR fell from 4.7% to 4.4%, while rural female UR declined from 4.3% to 3.9%.
• Rural female UR of 3.9% was the lowest recorded during 2026.
• Urban male UR declined from 6.1% in August to 6.0% in September, while urban female UR increased from 8.9% to 9.2%.

Q10. NITI Aayog’s Frontier Tech Hub released the ‘Data Centre Evaluation Framework 2026’ to assess infrastructure readiness and promote sustainable growth. How many core pillars constitute this evaluation framework?

(a) Three

(b) Four

(c) Five

(d) Six

(e) Seven

Answer: c

Solution:

• NITI Aayog’s Frontier Tech Hub released the Data Centre Evaluation Framework on 14 October 2026 to promote the sustainable growth of data centres across India.
• The Framework was developed with inputs from industry, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), the Ministry of Power and the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).

• It provides a decision-support tool to assess infrastructure readiness, safeguard critical resources and maximise the long-term economic and strategic value of data centres.

Five Pillars of the Framework

1. Power and Energy: Assess grid readiness, net grid draw and the use of renewable energy and storage-backed power.
2. Water and Cooling: Evaluate basin-level water stress and the impact on public water supplies.
3. Siting and Environmental Sustainability: Promote rainwater harvesting, on-site water treatment and storage, and lifecycle management of e-waste, batteries and other hazardous waste.
4. Economic and Strategic Value: Identify suitable data-centre zones, distinguish colocation services from active compute services, link State incentives to measurable outcomes and promote Make in India across IT and non-IT infrastructure.
5. Policy, Governance and Implementation: Ensure time-bound approvals, clear accountability and monitoring of project commitments.

Significance

• Helps States evaluate investment proposals based on infrastructure availability, environmental sustainability, economic value and implementation readiness.
• Enables early identification of infrastructure and resource constraints, reducing project implementation risks.
• Encourages responsible use of energy and water while strengthening environmental safeguards.
• Promotes investment decisions that generate measurable economic benefits and support domestic manufacturing.
• Aims to accelerate the development of India’s data-centre ecosystem while ensuring sustainable capacity creation and long-term economic value.