AAICLAS Recruitment 2026 Notification Out For 210 Vacancies, Check Apply Online link

AAI Cargo Logistics and Allied Services Company Limited has provided a great opportunity for candidates who wish to work in their respective districts as Security Screener (Fresher) and Assistant (Security). The department has announced a total of 220 vacancies for these posts, offering a good career opportunity for aspirants looking to join the aviation and security sector.

AAICLAS Recruitment 2026 Notification Out

Interested candidates can apply online for the AAICLAS Security Screener (Fresher) post from 18 May to 8 June 2026. Meanwhile, candidates interested in the Assistant (Security) post can complete their application process from 11 June to 2 July 2026 through the official recruitment portal. Candidates can check all the information related to the AAICLAS Recruitment 2026 by this article.

AAICLAS Recruitment 2026: Overview

Interested and eligible candidates can complete the online application process through the official portal for postings in cities including Kolkata, Patna, Trichy, Calicut, Udaipur, Tirupati, Madurai, and several other airport stations.

Particulars Security Screener (Fresher)  Assistant (Security) 
Post Name Security Screener (Fresher) Assistant (Security)
Total Vacancies 158 62
Posting Locations Dehradun, Kolkata, Patna, Trichy, Calicut, Udaipur Tirupati, Trichy, Madurai, Bhubaneswar, Udaipur
Qualification Graduation (60% for Gen/OBC/EWS; 55% for SC/ST) 12th Pass (60% for Gen; 55% for SC/ST)
Age Limit (as on) 27 years (01.05.2026) 27 years (01.06.2026)
Application Fee (Gen/OBC) Rs. 750/- Rs. 500/-
Application Fee (SC/ST/EWS/Women) Rs. 100/- Rs. 100/-
Last Date to Apply 8 June 2026 2 July 2026
Selection Process Online Interaction (Merit-based) Online Interaction (Merit-based)

What is AAICLAS?

AAI Cargo Logistics and Allied Services Company Limited, popularly known as AAICLAS, is a subsidiary of the Airports Authority of India that manages cargo handling and airport logistics services across the country. The company plays an important role in air cargo operations, security screening, and logistics support at major Indian airports.

Key Highlights of AAICLAS

  • Established as a wholly owned subsidiary of AAI
  • Handles air cargo and logistics operations at airports
  • Provides cargo screening and security services
  • Operates across multiple airports in India
  • Offers employment opportunities in aviation and airport services
  • Supports domestic and international cargo movement

AAICLAS 2026 Notification PDF

Candidates interested in applying for the recruitment must carefully read the official notification PDF for the posts of Security Screener (Fresher) and Assistant (Security) to understand important details such as eligibility criteria, age limit, educational qualification, selection process, salary structure, application dates, and other recruitment guidelines before submitting the online application form.

AAICLAS Vacancies 2026

Candidates who are shortlisted will be required to work anywhere in India, as their posting location may be shifted to any airport or operational site across the country depending on organizational needs or administrative decisions. In total, 158 positions have been released, distributed across various designated locations as per the recruitment plan.

For Security Screener (Fresher) Posts

Airport/Place of Posting No. of Vacancies
Dehradun 17
Kolkata 25
Patna 37
Trichy 28
Calicut 17
Udaipur 34
Total 158

For Assistant (Security) Posts

Airport/Place of Posting No. of Vacancies
Tirupati 9
Trichy 23
Madurai 9
Bhubaneswar 9
Udaipur 12
Total 62

AAICLAS Recruitment 2026 Important Dates

Event Security Screener (Advt. 01/2026) Assistant (Security) (Advt. 02/2026)
Opening date for online application 18 May 2026 11 June 2026
Last date for online application 8 June 2026 2 July 2026

AAICLAS Recruitment 2026 Eligibility Criteria

To apply for the AAICLAS recruitment, candidates must meet the prescribed educational, language, and age requirements set by the authority.

For Security Screener (Fresher)

  • Essential Qualification: Graduation from a recognized Board/University/Institution with minimum 60% marks (General/OBC/EWS) or 55% marks (SC/ST).
  • Language: Ability to read/speak English, Hindi, and/or local language.
  • Age: Not more than 27 years as of May 1, 2026 (relaxations apply).
  • Job Profile: Screening of cargo & in-line hold baggage using technical means; other security functions at airports & cargo complexes.

For Assistant (Security)

  • Essential Qualification: 12th (Sr. Secondary) from a recognized Board with minimum 60% marks (General) or 55% marks (SC/ST).
  • Language: Ability to read/speak English, Hindi, and/or local language.
  • Age: Not more than 27 years as of June 1, 2026 (relaxations apply).
  • Job Profile: Assistance in operational works at airports, passenger baggage handling, loading/unloading of baggage (involves lifting from conveyor belts and X-ray machines), and other multi-tasking operational activities.

Age Relaxation

The AAICLAS Recruitment 2026 provides age relaxation benefits for reserved categories as per government norms, offering additional eligibility support to SC/ST, OBC (NCL), and Ex-Servicemen candidates.

Category Age Relaxation
SC/ST 5 Years
OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) 3 Years
Ex-Servicemen 5 Years

Bank Mahapack 2026

AAICLAS Apply Online 2026

AAI Cargo Logistics and Allied Services Company Limited has begun the online application process for the 2026 recruitment cycle, with registrations for Security Screener posts under Advt. No. 01/2026 now active on the official website, where candidates can apply by submitting their details, documents, and fee, while applications for Assistant (Security) under Advt. No. 02/2026 will open from 11 June 2026.

Click Here to apply for AAICLAS Security Screener (Freshers) 2026

Application Fess of AAICLAS 2026

Category Security Screener Assistant (Security)
General & OBC Rs. 750/- Rs. 500/-
SC/ST, EWS & Women Rs. 100/- Rs. 100/-

Documents Required

Candidates applying for AAI Cargo Logistics and Allied Services Company Limited must keep all necessary documents ready in scanned format before filling the online application form. The documents should be uploaded as per the prescribed size and guidelines mentioned in the official notification.

Required Documents:

  • Matriculation / Higher Secondary Certificate
  • Graduation Certificate / Degree or Provisional Degree Certificate
  • Graduation Marksheet
  • Caste / Category Certificate (if applicable)
  • Aadhar Card Copy
  • Recent Passport Size Colour Photograph (max 20 KB)
  • Scanned Signature (max 20 KB)
  • Online Application Fee Payment Proof

AAICLAS Recruitment 2026 Salary Structure

AAICLAS offers consolidated monthly remuneration for both Security Screener and Assistant (Security) posts. The salary increases annually during the fixed-term contract period.

Post Name First Year Salary Second Year Salary Third Year Salary
Security Screener Rs. 30,000/- per month Rs. 32,000/- per month Rs. 34,000/- per month
Assistant (Security) Rs. 21,500/- per month Rs. 22,000/- per month Rs. 22,500/- per month

Important Points

  • The salary is consolidated and inclusive of all allowances.
  • Selected candidates will be appointed on a Fixed Term Contract (FTC) basis.
  • Security Screener candidates will initially join as Security Screener (Fresher) and, after successful training completion, will be designated as Security Screener (Certified).
  • Annual increment in remuneration will be applicable based on the contract period.

AAICLAS 2026 Selection Procedure (Common for Both):

Candidates will be shortlisted based on their marks (Graduation for Security Screener and 12th for Assistant). Shortlisted applicants will be called for an online interaction/interview. Final selection will be made based on interview performance and a merit list. Simply appearing for the process does not ensure selection.

AAICLAS Recruitment 2026 Contract Period

The engagement for both Security Screener and Assistant (Security) posts will be purely on a Fixed Term Contract (FTC) basis under AAI Cargo Logistics and Allied Services Company Limited (AAICLAS).

Security Screener Contract Period

Candidates will be engaged as Security Screener (Fresher) on a Fixed Term Engagement Contract. The appointment will be subject to successful completion of the required training and operational requirements of AAICLAS.

Assistant (Security) Contract Period

Candidates selected for the post of Assistant (Security) will be appointed on a 3-year Term Engagement Contract at AAICLAS. The engagement will be governed by the terms and conditions mentioned in the official notification.

AAICLAS Assistant Security Job Profile 2026

The job profile of an AAICLAS Assistant Security mainly involves operational support activities at airports and cargo handling locations.

  • Assistance in airport operational work
  • Passenger baggage handling support
  • Loading and unloading of baggage
  • Multi-tasking operational duties at the airport premises
  • Handling conveyor belt and X-ray machine-related work
  • Supporting cargo and logistics operations
  • Performing duties assigned by the airport authorities from time to time

AAICLAS Security Screener Job Responsibilities

The AAICLAS Security Screener role involves aviation cargo security operations and baggage screening activities at airports and cargo complexes.

  • Screening of cargo consignments
  • In-line hold baggage screening operations
  • Operating X-ray and security screening equipment
  • Identifying suspicious or prohibited items
  • Assisting in airport security operations
  • Carrying out aviation security-related functions
  • Maintaining safety and security standards at cargo terminals
  • Performing duties assigned under airport security protocols

CAIIB Admit Card 2026 Released, Download Direct Link @iibf.org.in

IIBF has officially released the CAIIB Admit Card 2026 for candidates appearing in the May-June exam cycle. The CAIIB exam will begin on 31 May 2026. Candidates who applied for the CAIIB exam 2026 for the June cycle can download their admit card from the official IIBF website and check the shift timings and exam venue.

CAIIB Admit Card 2026

The CAIIB May–June 2026 examination will be held for both compulsory and elective subjects. Candidates appearing for the examination should download their admit card in advance to avoid last-minute issues. The CAIIB Call letter contains important details such as the examination schedule, reporting time, shift timing, exam centre address, and essential instructions related to the examination process.

CAIIB Admit Card 2026 Overview

Particulars Details
Exam Name Certified Associate of the Indian Institute of Bankers (CAIIB)
Conducting Body Indian Institute of Banking and Finance
Session May–June 2026
Category Admit Card
Mode of Admit Card Online
Exam Date 31 May, 7 June, 13 June, 14 June, and 21 June 2026.
Login Credentials Required Membership Number/User ID and Password
Papers Included Compulsory and Elective Papers
Details Mentioned on Admit Card Exam Date, Shift Timing, Reporting Time, Exam Centre, Instructions
Documents Required Admit Card and Valid Photo ID Proof
Accepted ID Proofs Aadhaar Card, PAN Card, Voter ID, Passport, Driving Licence
Official Website iibf.org.in

CAIIB Admit Card 2026 Download Link

The CAIIB Exams admit card link has been activated on the official website, and candidates need to enter their membership number and password/login credentials to download it successfully. The admit card contains important details such as the exam centre address, exam date, reporting time, shift timing, and important exam-day instructions.

CAIIB Admit Card 2026: Click here to Download

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Steps To Download CAIIB Call Letter 2026

  • Visit the official website of Indian Institute of Banking and Finance at IIBF Official Website.
  • On the homepage, open the examination-related section available under the courses/exams tab.
  • Find and click on the “CAIIB May–June 2026 Admit Card” link.
  • Enter the required login details such as Membership Number/User ID and Password.
  • After submitting the details, the CAIIB call letter will be displayed on the screen.
  • Check all the information mentioned in the admit card carefully and download it for future use.
  • Candidates should also keep a printed copy of the admit card ready for the examination process.

Documents to Carry with CAIIB Admit Card 2026

Candidates appearing for the CAIIB May–June 2026 exam must carry their admit card along with one valid original photo ID proof to the exam centre. Without these documents, entry to the examination hall will not be allowed.

Accepted ID proofs include:

  • Aadhaar Card
  • PAN Card
  • Voter ID
  • Passport
  • Driving Licence

The CAIIB May-June 2026 examination schedule has been officially released by IIBF. Candidates appearing for the exam can now plan their preparation strategy according to the paper-wise exam dates.

CAIIB 2026 Exam Dates

As you all know, the CAIIB exam is held on various dates for different papers and streams. Candidates can check the exam schedule based on their subject, which includes ABM, BFM, ABFM, BRBL, and elective papers. For the convenience of candidates preparing for the upcoming exam, detailed exam dates for each paper are provided below.

  • 31 May 2026 – Advanced Bank Management (ABM)
  • 7 June 2026 – Bank Financial Management (BFM)
  • 13 June 2026 – Advanced Business & Financial Management (ABFM)
  • 14 June 2026 – Banking Regulations & Business Laws (BRBL)
  • 21 June 2026 – Elective Paper

Important Highlights

  •  Exams will be conducted on multiple weekends
  • Compulsory papers scheduled first
  •  Elective paper will be held separately
  •  Proper revision gap available between exams

Details Mentioned on CAIIB Admit Card 2026

The CAIIB Admit Card 2026 contains important information related to the examination and candidate details. Candidates should carefully verify all the details mentioned on the call letter after downloading it to avoid any issues on the exam day.

Include:

  • Candidate’s Name
  • Membership Number
  • Registration Number
  • Exam Date
  • Shift Timing
  • Reporting Time
  • Exam Centre Address
  • Photograph & Signature
  • Exam Day Instructions
Related Posts
CAIIB Salary CAIIB Syllabus
CAIIB Previous Year Question Papers

Daily Current Affairs Quiz 25th May 2026 for Banking & Competitive Exams

Daily Current Affairs: 25 May, 2026

Q1. The BHAVYA Scheme, whose operational guidelines were released in May 2026, aims to develop 100 investment-ready industrial parks over a six-year horizon. What is the total financial outlay allocated for this scheme?

(a) ₹10,500 crore

(b) ₹21,800 crore

(c) ₹33,660 crore

(d) ₹50,000 crore

(e) ₹75,250 crore

Answer: c

Solution:

  • In May 2026, the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry released the detailed operational guidelines for the implementation of the BHAVYA Scheme.
  • The BHAVYA Scheme is a major Central Sector Scheme aimed at developing investment-ready and world-class industrial parks across India.
  • The scheme seeks to strengthen India’s manufacturing ecosystem in line with initiatives such as Make in India and PM Gati Shakti.
  • Under the scheme, 100 industrial parks will be developed over six years from 2026–27 to 2031–32 with a total financial outlay of around ₹33,660 crore.
  • In the first phase, up to 50 industrial parks will be selected through a challenge-based competitive process.
  • The guidelines provide a framework covering eligibility conditions, project selection, funding structure, governance, monitoring mechanisms, and implementation modalities.
  • The scheme focuses on creating integrated industrial ecosystems with plug-and-play infrastructure, multimodal logistics connectivity, utility systems, digital governance, worker-support facilities, and sustainable infrastructure.
  • Both greenfield and eligible brownfield industrial parks can be developed under the scheme.
  • The minimum land requirement has been fixed at 100 acres for non-hilly states and 25 acres for hilly states, northeastern states, Union Territories, and smaller states.
  • The scheme also allows consideration of larger industrial parks up to 1000 acres.
  • Project proposals will be evaluated based on factors such as multimodal connectivity, infrastructure quality, industrial ecosystem strength, digital governance readiness, and sustainability.
  • Infrastructure components under evaluation include underground utility systems, water and waste management, common effluent treatment systems, renewable energy facilities, worker housing, testing laboratories, skill development centres, and digital single-window systems.
  • Projects under the BHAVYA Scheme will be implemented through Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) incorporated under the Companies Act, 2013.
  • The SPVs will handle planning, development, operations, investor facilitation, and long-term maintenance of the industrial parks.
  • Financial assistance under the scheme will be provided as equity contribution linked to the land value transferred to the SPV and achievement of project milestones.
  • The National Industrial Corridor Development Corporation has been designated as the Project Management Agency (PMA) for implementation and monitoring.
  • The guidelines also include provisions for participation of private developers through project-specific SPVs with defined governance and accountability mechanisms.
  • To ensure transparency and efficient implementation, the scheme incorporates GIS-based monitoring systems, periodic progress reporting, audits, and oversight by a National Level Steering Committee chaired by the DPIIT Secretary.

Q2. Who clinched the gold medal in the men’s 100m event at the 2026 Athletics Federation Cup by setting a blazing new national record of 10.09 seconds?

(a) Animesh Kujur

(b) Gurindervir Singh

(c) Amlan Borgohain

(d) Pranav Pramod

(e) Muhammed Anas

Answer: b

Solution:

  • Gurindervir Singh won the gold medal in the men’s 100 metres event at the Athletics Federation Cup 2026.
  • He created a new national record by clocking 10.09 seconds, improving his previous personal best of 10.17 seconds.
  • Gurindervir Singh also surpassed the Commonwealth Games qualification mark of 10.16 seconds.
  • Animesh Kujur won the silver medal in the event with a timing of 10.20 seconds.
  • Pranav Pramod secured the bronze medal after finishing in 10.29 seconds.
  • In the men’s 400 metres event, Vishal TK won the gold medal with a new national record timing of 44.98 seconds.
  • With this performance, Vishal TK became the first Indian athlete to break the 45-second barrier in the men’s 400 metres event.

Q3. In May 2026, Dr. Lharkyal Lama was conferred with the prestigious religious title “Mahasadhamma Jyotikadhaj”. Which country’s government bestowed this honor upon him?

(a) Sri Lanka

(b) Bhutan

(c) Myanmar

(d) Thailand

(e) Cambodia

Answer: c

Solution:

  • In May 2026, Lharkyal Lama was conferred the prestigious religious title Mahasadhamma Jyotikadhaj by the Government of Myanmar.
  • The honour was presented by U Thant Sin during a special ceremony held at Ngagyur Pelyul Ling Monastery.
  • The event was attended by dignitaries from India, Sri Lanka, Nepal, and Myanmar.
  • Lharkyal Lama received the title in recognition of his contributions to the preservation and promotion of Buddhist teachings and heritage worldwide.
  • He also serves as the President of the International Buddhist Confederation, which works for Buddhist studies and archaeological conservation.
  • Dr. Lharkyal Lama, also known as Khenpo Chhime Chhiring, is a noted Tibetan Buddhist scholar from Nepal.

Q4. The 79th World Health Assembly was convened in May 2026 to adopt multiple resolutions on global health infrastructure. In which city was this assembly held?

(a) New York, USA

(b) Geneva, Switzerland

(c) Paris, France

(d) New Delhi, India

(e) Vienna, Austria

Answer: b

Solution:

  • The 79th World Health Assembly is being held in Geneva from 18 to 23 May 2026.
  • The assembly is organised by the World Health Organization and serves as the organisation’s principal decision-making body.
  • The theme of the 79th World Health Assembly is “Reshaping Global Health: A Shared Responsibility.”
  • During the session, member states adopted more than 20 decisions and 13 resolutions aimed at strengthening multilateral cooperation in global healthcare.
  • Key issues discussed at the assembly included stroke, tuberculosis, antimicrobial resistance, emergency care, haemophilia, precision medicine, and radiation-related health concerns.
  • The assembly provides a global platform for member countries to deliberate on international public health priorities and policy frameworks.

Q5. Who has been appointed by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) as India’s Chef de Mission for the upcoming 2026 Commonwealth Games in Glasgow?

(a) Abhinav Bindra

(b) Rohit Rajpal

(c) PT Usha

(d) Ravi Bengani

(e) Sharath Kamal

Answer: b

Solution:

  • Rohit Rajpal has been appointed as the Chef de Mission of the Indian contingent for the upcoming Commonwealth Games 2026.
  • Ravi Bengani has been named as the Deputy Chef de Mission for the Games.
  • Vandana Rao and Rahul Swami will accompany the Indian contingent as General Team Managers.
  • The Commonwealth Games 2026 are scheduled to be held in Glasgow from 23 July to 2 August 2026.

Q6. In May, 2026, the 79th World Health Assembly passed a historic first-ever resolution on which of the following non-communicable medical conditions?

(a) Alzheimer’s Disease

(b) Chronic Kidney Disease

(c) Type-1 Diabetes

(d) Rheumatoid Arthritis

(e) Cardiovascular Strokes

Answer: e

Solution:

  • The 79th World Health Assembly passed the first-ever resolution on stroke on 22 May 2026.
  • The resolution urged member states to recognise stroke as a major public health priority and strengthen national healthcare policies related to stroke prevention, treatment, rehabilitation, and long-term care support.
  • The resolution covers the entire care pathway, including prevention and control of risk factors, timely emergency treatment, expanded rehabilitation services, and long-term patient support.
  • According to the World Health Organization, stroke is a medical emergency that occurs when blood flow to the brain is interrupted due to either blockage or bleeding.
  • The interruption in blood supply can cause brain cell death and lead to severe complications, disability, or death if not treated immediately.
  • Globally, strokes affect nearly 12 million people every year and cause more than six million deaths annually.
  • The WHO estimates that two out of every three stroke survivors experience long-term disability.

Q7. Which company, known as India’s only functional gold mine operator, earned an additional ₹633.34 crore in 2025–26 due to rising global gold prices?

(a) NMDC Limited

(b) Coal India Limited

(c) Hutti Gold Mines Company Limited

(d) Hindustan Zinc Limited

(e) National Aluminium Company

Answer: c

Solution:

  • Rising global gold prices helped Hutti Gold Mines Company Limited earn an additional ₹633.34 crore during the financial year 2025–26.
  • The average selling price of gold increased by 34.11 per cent during the year.
  • The company also recorded its highest average recovery grade in the last five years, recovering 2.61 grams of gold per metric tonne of ore mined.
  • Hutti Gold Mines Company Limited is a Government of Karnataka undertaking established in 1947.
  • It holds the distinction of being India’s only functional producer of primary gold.
  • HGML is engaged in the exploration, development, and exploitation of gold deposits in Karnataka.
  • The company’s corporate headquarters is located in Bengaluru.
  • The company currently processes ore from the Hutti Gold Mine along with two satellite mines — the Uti Opencast Mine and the Heera-Buddinni Exploratory Underground Mine.
  • The Hutti Gold Mine is considered one of the world’s most ancient metal mines, with origins tracing back to the Pre-Ashokan period.

Q8. According to the data released by the Reserve Bank of India in May 2026, India recorded an all-time high gross FDI inflow in FY2025–26. What was the exact value of these gross inflows?

(a) $7.65 billion

(b) $53.58 billion

(c) $84.84 billion

(d) $94.53 billion

(e) $33.29 billion

Answer: d

Solution:

  • India recorded gross Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows of a record $94.53 billion in the financial year 2025–26.
  • According to data released by the Reserve Bank of India in May 2026, gross FDI inflows increased by 17 per cent compared to the previous financial year.
  • The latest figure surpassed the earlier record of $84.84 billion achieved in 2021–22.
  • Despite the strong gross inflows, net FDI inflows stood at only $7.65 billion during 2025–26.
  • However, the net FDI figure was higher than the $959 million recorded in 2024–25.
  • Foreign investors’ repatriations increased to $53.58 billion in 2025–26, compared to $51.49 billion in 2024–25 and $44.47 billion in 2023–24.
  • Overseas FDI by Indian companies also rose significantly to $33.29 billion in 2025–26.
  • In comparison, overseas investments by Indian firms stood at $28.17 billion in 2024–25 and $16.68 billion in 2023–24.

Q9. In May 2026, the Central Government reconstituted the apex High-Powered Review Board (HPRB) of the Brahmaputra Board to include representatives from which two states?

(a) Assam and Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Bihar and Jharkhand

(c) Sikkim and West Bengal

(d) Nagaland and Manipur

(e) Odisha and West Bengal

Answer: c

Solution:

  • In May 2026, the Central Government reconstituted the High-Powered Review Board of the Brahmaputra Board to include representatives from Sikkim and West Bengal.
  • The Brahmaputra Board was constituted in 1980 to address issues related to the management and development of the Brahmaputra River and its tributaries.
  • The Board includes Chief Ministers of concerned states along with water experts and engineers.
  • The organisation works on matters related to flood control, irrigation, hydropower development, river management, development planning, and inter-state water issues in the Brahmaputra and Barak river basins of Northeast India.

Q10. Dr. R. Sreedher has been selected for the Padma Shri 2026. He is a veteran pioneer associated with which of the following fields?

(a) Deep-Sea Mineral Mining

(b) Radio Broadcasting

(c) Organic Agriculture

(d) Cyber Security Hardware

(e) Classical Kathak Dance

Answer: b

Solution:

  • Dr. R. Sreedher has been selected for the Padma Shri 2026 Award.
  • He has been honoured for his exceptional contribution to radio broadcasting and for promoting futuristic technologies in radio and audio podcasting.
  • Dr. R. Sreedher is a veteran broadcaster with more than five decades of experience in the field of ra
  • dio communication.
  • He is widely known for his innovative and interactive radio programmes that transformed public engagement through broadcasting.
  • Dr. Sreedher also pioneered the early use of satellite technology through INSAT-1B to connect remote regions such as Leh, Lakshadweep, and Antarctica via radio communication.

Bank Holidays In June 2026, Check Complete List of Schedule Here

Bank holidays in June 2026 in India are not always the same across all states because several holidays are region-specific and depend on local festivals, government notifications, and RBI guidelines. Customers should carefully review the June 2026 bank holiday schedule to avoid inconvenience related to cash withdrawal, cheque clearance, loan processing, or branch banking services.

Bank Holidays In June 2026

Apart from weekly offs such as Sundays and second/fourth Saturdays, June 2026 also includes important holidays like Bakrid (Eid al-Adha), Raja Sankranti, Rath Yatra, and the half-year bank closing day on 30 June. While physical bank branches may remain closed on these days, digital banking services such as UPI, Internet Banking, Mobile Banking, ATMs, NEFT, RTGS, and IMPS will continue functioning normally.

List of Bank Holidays In June 2026

 

Date Day Holiday States/Regions Affected
7 June 2026 Sunday Weekly Off All States
13 June 2026 Saturday Second Saturday All States
14 June 2026 Sunday Weekly Off All States
15 June 2026 Monday Raja Sankranti (Mithuna Sankranti) Odisha
17 June 2026 Wednesday Id-ul-Adha (Bakrid/Eid al-Adha)* Most States
21 June 2026 Sunday Weekly Off All States
22 June 2026 Monday Rath Yatra
Odisha, West Bengal, Gujarat
27 June 2026 Saturday Fourth Saturday All States
28 June 2026 Sunday Weekly Off All States
30 June 2026 Tuesday Bank Half-Year Closing All States

*Bakrid holiday date may vary depending on moon sighting.

Sundays and Saturday Bank Holidays In June 2026

Banks across India remain closed on all Sundays and on the second and fourth Saturdays of every month. Customers should plan branch-related work accordingly.

Date Day Bank Status
6 June 2026 First Saturday Open
7 June 2026 Sunday Closed
13 June 2026 Second Saturday Closed
14 June 2026 Sunday Closed
20 June 2026 Third Saturday Open
21 June 2026 Sunday Closed
27 June 2026 Fourth Saturday Closed
28 June 2026 Sunday Closed

What Services Remain Open During Bank Holidays?

Even during bank holidays, several digital and online banking services remain active for customers.

Banking Service Availability
ATM Services Available 24×7
UPI Transactions Available
Internet Banking Available
Mobile Banking Available
IMPS Available
NEFT Available 24×7
RTGS Available 24×7

Important RBI Facts
NEFT became available 24×7 from December 2019
RTGS became available 24×7 from December 2020\

Important Bank Holidays In June 2026

Several important regional and national observances fall in June 2026. Candidates preparing for banking awareness and current affairs sections should also remember these holidays.

Id-ul-Adha / Bakrid 2026

Bakrid, also known as Eid al-Adha, is one of the major Islamic festivals celebrated across India. Most public and private sector banks are expected to remain closed in several states on this occasion.

  • Expected holiday around 17 June 2026
  • Date depends on moon sighting
  • Banks likely closed in most states
  • Public and private banks both observe holiday

Raja Sankranti 2026

Raja Sankranti, also called Mithuna Sankranti, is an important regional festival celebrated mainly in Odisha.

  • Holiday Date: 15 June 2026
  • Applicable State: Odisha
  • Festival Type: Agricultural Festival
  • Bank Status: Closed in Odisha

Rath Yatra 2026

Rath Yatra is one of the major Hindu festivals associated with Lord Jagannath and the famous Jagannath Temple in Puri, Odisha.

  • Holiday Date: 22 June 2026
  • States Affected: Odisha, Gujarat, West Bengal
  • Festival Significance: Jagannath Rath Yatra Festival

Test Prime

Daily Current Affairs Quiz 24th May 2026 for Banking & Competitive Exams

 Daily Current Affairs: 24 May, 2026

Q1. In May 2026, the Vice President of India released the book titled ‘The Library Man of India: The Story of P.N. Panicker’. Who is the author of this book?

(a) Shashi Tharoor

(b) P. P. Sathyan

(c) Arundhati Roy

(d) Perumal Murugan

(e) Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya

Answer: b

Solution:

The Vice President of India, C. P. Radhakrishnan on 22 May, 2026, released the book ‘The Library Man of India: The Story of P.N. Panicker’, authored by P. P. Sathyan, at Uprashtrapati Bhavan.

Q2. For the financial year 2025–26, the Reserve Bank of India approved a record surplus transfer to the Central Government. What is the exact value of this dividend payout?

 (a) ₹1.09 lakh crore

(b) ₹2.11 lakh crore

(c) ₹2.86 lakh crore

(d) ₹3.95 lakh crore

(e) ₹91.97 lakh crore

Answer: c

Solution:

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) approved the transfer of a record surplus of ₹2.86 lakh crore to the Central Government for the financial year 2025–26.
  • According to the RBI, its gross income increased by 26.42 per cent during FY 2025–26 compared to the previous financial year.
  • Expenditure before risk provisions rose by 27.60 per cent during the same period.
  • The RBI stated that its net income before risk provisions and transfer to statutory funds stood at ₹3.95 lakh crore in FY26, compared to ₹3.13 lakh crore in FY25.
  • The balance sheet of the Reserve Bank expanded by 20.61 per cent to ₹91.97 lakh crore as of 31 March 2026.
  • The central bank also decided to transfer ₹1.09 lakh crore to the Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB) for FY26.
  • The Contingent Risk Buffer was maintained at 6.5 per cent of the RBI balance sheet under the revised Economic Capital Framework.

Q3. Which Indian Army officer received the United Nations Military Gender Advocate of the Year Award 2025?

(a) Suman Gawani

(b) Abhilasha Barak

(c) Radhika Sen

(d) Priya Jhingan

(e) Punita Arora

Answer: b

Solution:

  • Abhilasha Barak has been honoured with the prestigious United Nations Military Gender Advocate of the Year Award 2025 for her service with the United Nations peacekeeping mission in Lebanon.
  • Major Barak is serving with the Indian Battalion as Commander of the Female Engagement Team in the United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon.
  • She is also recognised as the first woman combat helicopter pilot of the Indian Army.
  • With this achievement, Major Abhilasha Barak became the third Indian peacekeeper to receive the honour.
  • Earlier, Suman Gawani received the award in 2019 for her service with the UN Mission in South Sudan.
  • Radhika Sen was honoured in 2023 for her contribution to the UN Stabilisation Mission in the Democratic Republic of the Congo.
  • The award was instituted in 2016 by the Office of Military Affairs under the United Nations Department of Peace Operations.
  • It recognises military peacekeepers who demonstrate exceptional commitment towards promoting gender equality and implementing UN Security Council Resolution 1325 on Women, Peace and Security.

Q4. Who recently in may, 2026, took the oath of office as the Chairman of the US Federal Reserve Board of Governors, succeeding Jerome Powell?

(a) Kevin Warsh

 (b) Janet Yellen

(c) Ben Bernanke

(d) Christopher Waller

(e) Lael Brainard

Answer: a

Solution:

  • In the United States, Kevin Warsh took oath as the Chairman of the Federal Reserve Board of Governors.
  • He succeeded Jerome Powell, who had served in the position since 2018.
  • The Chairman of the Federal Reserve Board of Governors plays a key role in shaping monetary policy and overseeing the central banking system of the United States.

Q5. Which country officially joined the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) as its 26TH member country?

(a) United Arab Emirates

(b) Kingdom of Saudi Arabia

(c) Republic of South Africa

(d) Brazil

(e) Kenya

Answer: b

Solution:

  • The International Big Cat Alliance has welcomed Saudi Arabia as its newest member(26TH ) country on 22 May 2026.
  • The International Big Cat Alliance is a global platform that brings together countries that are home to the world’s seven major big cat species.
  • The alliance focuses on the conservation and protection of lion, tiger, leopard, snow leopard, cheetah, jaguar, and puma populations across the globe.
  • With the inclusion of Saudi Arabia, the alliance now consists of 26 member countries and five observer nations.
  • The expansion of the alliance reflects growing international cooperation in biodiversity conservation and wildlife protection.

Q6. In May 2026, the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) signed an MoU for advanced consultancy support in tunnel engineering and slope stability with a premier institute based in which country?

(a) Japan

(b) Switzerland

(c) Norway

(d) Germany

(e) Austria

Answer: c

Solution:

  • In May 2026, the National Highways Authority of India signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Norwegian Geotechnical Institute of Norway.
  • The agreement was signed to provide advanced consultancy support in tunnel engineering, slope stability, and capacity building.
  • The collaboration aims to strengthen technical expertise and improve safety and efficiency in highway and tunnel infrastructure projects in India.
  • MoU will remain valid for the period of five years.

Q7. In May 2026, the United States Secretary of State arrived in India for a high-profile, four-day official visit to expand cooperation in critical technology, trade, and the Indo-Pacific strategy. Who is the current US Secretary of State who made this maiden visit?

(a) Antony Blinken

(b) Lloyd Austin

(c) Marco Rubio

(d) Sergio Gor

(e) Jake Sullivan

Answer: c

Solution:

  • US Secretary of State Marco Rubio arrived in Kolkata on 23 May 2025 for a four-day visit to India.
  • This marks his maiden visit to India as the US Secretary of State and is considered an important step towards strengthening bilateral relations between United States and India.
  • The visit is expected to focus on enhancing cooperation in areas such as trade, defence, energy security, technology, and the Indo-Pacific strategy.

Q8. World Turtle Day is celebrated annually on 23 May to raise global awareness about the conservation of turtles and tortoises. In which year was this day officially established?

(a) 1992

(b) 1995

(c) 1997

(d) 2010

(e) 2000

Answer: e

Solution:

  • World Turtle Day is observed every year on 23 May to celebrate turtles and tortoises and promote awareness about their conservation.
  • The day highlights the importance of protecting these ancient reptiles, which have existed on Earth for more than 200 million years.
  • World Turtle Day was established in 2000 to encourage global awareness, conservation efforts, and protection of turtle and tortoise habitats.

Q9. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has officially approved the reappointment of Sandeep Bakhshi as the MD & CEO of ICICI Bank. His extended tenure will now run until which year?

(a) October 3, 2028

(b) October 3, 2027

(c) October 3, 2026

(d) December 31, 2029

(e) January 1, 2030

Answer: a

Solution:

  • Sandeep Bakhshi will continue as the Chief Executive Officer of ICICI Bank for another two years.
  • The Reserve Bank of India has approved his reappointment.
  • Following the approval, Sandeep Bakhshi’s tenure will now continue until 3 October 2028.
  • He has been leading ICICI Bank, India’s second-largest private sector bank, since 2018.

Q10. In May 2026, Haryana’s first constellation garden named ‘Nakshatra Vatika’ was developed at which of the following protected areas?

(a) Sultanpur National Park

(b) Kalesar National Park

(c) Saraswati Wildlife Sanctuary

(d) Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary

(e) Chhilchhila Wildlife Sanctuary

Answer: c

Solution:

  • Haryana’s first constellation garden, named Nakshatra Vatika, has been developed at the Saraswati Wildlife Sanctuary in the Seonsar forest area of Pehowa.
  • The project has been developed by the Haryana Sarasvati Heritage Development Board.
  • The Haryana Government is also planning to develop similar constellation garden projects in other districts of the state.
  • Saraswati Wildlife Sanctuary, also known as Seonsar Forest, is located in the districts of Kaithal and Kurukshetra.

Daily Current Affairs and GK Updates (23rd May, 2026)

National News

Ministry of Social Justice Launches JEEVAN App, SHATAYU Dashboard for Elder Care Support

  • Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment launched two digital platforms  the JEEVAN app and the SHATAYU Geriatric Caregiver Dashboard  to improve healthcare, safety, caregiving support, and social inclusion for senior citizens in India.
  • The initiative was launched by Virendra Kumar and aims to provide easier access to welfare schemes, emergency assistance, healthcare information, and government-supported senior citizen services through digital technology.
  • The SHATAYU Dashboard will help families identify trained geriatric caregivers across districts and states, strengthening India’s growing elderly care ecosystem.
  • These platforms reflect India’s broader push toward a technology-driven care economy focused on elder care, community support, caregiver coordination, and efficient public service delivery.

Why India Became Home to 97 of the World’s 100 Hottest Cities in 2026

  • India is facing an intense heatwave crisis in 2026, with reports showing that 97 of the world’s 100 hottest cities were located in the country on a single day, including areas in Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh where temperatures crossed 48°C.
  • The extreme conditions are largely driven by a “heat dome,” a high-pressure atmospheric system that traps and intensifies hot air while blocking rainfall, clouds, and cooling winds.
  • Climate change, weak Western Disturbances, El Niño effects, deforestation, urban expansion, and shrinking water bodies have further worsened the crisis by increasing heat retention and creating urban heat islands.
  • The prolonged heatwave is severely impacting public health, agriculture, water availability, and electricity demand, raising concerns about India’s growing vulnerability to climate-related disasters.

International News

India Delays First Big Cat Alliance Summit, Impacting Wildlife Diplomacy and African Partnerships

  • India has postponed the inaugural International Big Cat Alliance Summit, which was scheduled for June 1, 2026, in New Delhi, following the rescheduling of the Fourth India-Africa Forum Summit.
  • The decision was taken after consultations with the African Union and the African Union Commission to ensure wider international participation, especially from African nations vital to global big cat conservation.
  • African countries are central to protecting species such as lions, leopards, and cheetahs, making their involvement essential for stronger wildlife cooperation and biodiversity conservation efforts.
  • India continues to position itself as a global leader in big cat conservation through initiatives like Project Tiger and programs supporting tigers, Asiatic lions, snow leopards, and cheetah restoration.

India and Ethiopia Sign WTO Accession Protocol to Strengthen Strategic Trade Ties

  • India and Ethiopia signed a bilateral accession protocol in Geneva supporting Ethiopia’s membership process in the World Trade Organization.
  • The agreement reflects India’s continued support for integrating developing and least-developed countries into the global trading system through fair trade access and economic cooperation.
  • The protocol advances Ethiopia’s long-running WTO accession journey, which involves reforms in trade regulations, tariffs, customs systems, and market access commitments.
  • India and Ethiopia already share strong economic ties, with India being one of Ethiopia’s largest trading partners and investors across sectors such as manufacturing, healthcare, agriculture, infrastructure, and education.

India and Cyprus Sign Strategic Partnership Deal Covering Defence, Trade, and Cybersecurity

  • India and Cyprus upgraded their ties to a Strategic Partnership during the visit of Nikos Christodoulides to New Delhi.
  • The two nations signed six agreements covering defense, cybersecurity, innovation, education, culture, maritime cooperation, and counter-terrorism coordination, including a new Joint Working Group on Counter-Terrorism.
  • A Defense Cooperation Roadmap for 2026–2031 and maritime rescue collaboration were announced, while Cyprus also joined India’s Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative under trade and connectivity cooperation.
  • Both countries further expanded ties through cultural and educational agreements, plans for the first India-Cyprus Space Day, and the establishment of a Cyprus Trade Center in Mumbai to boost trade and investment.

Kevin Warsh Sworn In as Federal Reserve Chair, Replacing Jerome Powell

  • Kevin Warsh has officially become the new chair of the Federal Reserve, succeeding Jerome Powell after a politically divided Senate confirmation process.
  • Warsh takes charge during a critical period for the United States economy, marked by inflation concerns, interest rate debates, and growing scrutiny over the independence of the central bank.
  • The Federal Reserve plays a major role in shaping global financial conditions through decisions on interest rates, inflation control, banking regulation, and financial stability, influencing markets worldwide.
  • A former Federal Reserve governor during the 2008 financial crisis, Warsh brings extensive economic and financial experience from institutions including Stanford, Harvard Law School, and the Hoover Institution.

Saudi Arabia Joins India-Led International Big Cat Alliance, Taking Global Wildlife Partnership to 26 Nations

  • Saudi Arabia has officially joined the International Big Cat Alliance, the India-led platform focused on protecting major big cat species and strengthening global biodiversity conservation efforts.
  • Launched by Narendra Modi in 2023, the alliance now includes 26 member countries and five observer nations, reflecting growing international cooperation in wildlife protection.
  • The IBCA works to conserve seven major big cat species — tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard, cheetah, jaguar, and puma — through knowledge sharing, habitat management, capacity building, and collaborative conservation programmes.
  • The alliance aims to protect ecosystems and biodiversity worldwide by supporting sustainable wildlife management and stronger international environmental partnerships.

Deadly Coal Mine Explosion in China’s Shanxi Kills Dozens, Massive Rescue Operation Underway

  • A deadly explosion at the Liushenyu Coal Mine in Shanxi has reportedly killed at least 90 people and injured more than 100 workers, making it one of China’s worst recent mining disasters.
  • The blast occurred while around 247 workers were inside the mine, prompting a massive rescue operation involving over 345 emergency personnel, medical teams, ambulances, and evacuation units.
  • Preliminary reports suggest the explosion may have been caused by dangerous gas conditions, including excessive carbon monoxide levels, though authorities are still investigating the exact cause.
  • Xi Jinping ordered authorities to intensify rescue efforts, ensure treatment for the injured, investigate the disaster thoroughly, and hold those responsible accountable.

Banking News

RBI’s Highest-Ever ₹2.87 Lakh Crore Surplus Transfer Strengthens Government Finances

  • Reserve Bank of India announced a record surplus transfer of ₹2.87 lakh crore to the India government for FY26, marking the highest-ever dividend payout by the central bank.
  • The transfer provides a major boost to government finances by strengthening non-tax revenue and reducing pressure on additional borrowing amid global economic uncertainties.
  • Higher foreign exchange gains, rising gold prices, investment income, and a sharp expansion in the RBI’s balance sheet contributed to the record surplus, while the bank also allocated ₹1.09 lakh crore to its Contingent Risk Buffer for financial stability.
  • Although slightly below the Union Budget estimate, the payout is expected to support fiscal management, liquidity operations, and broader economic resilience.

Sandeep Bakhshi to Continue as ICICI Bank CEO Until 2028 After RBI Approval

  • Reserve Bank of India has approved the reappointment of Sandeep Bakhshi as Managing Director and CEO of ICICI Bank for another two-year term.
  • His extended tenure will run from October 4, 2026, to October 3, 2028, ensuring leadership continuity at one of India’s largest private sector banks.
  • Bakhshi has led ICICI Bank since 2018 and is credited with strengthening the bank’s profitability, operational performance, digital growth, and investor confidence during his tenure.
  • ICICI Bank remains one of India’s leading financial institutions with a strong presence in retail banking, corporate banking, wealth management, loans, deposits, and digital financial services.

Awards News

Chandrayaan-3 Wins Prestigious 2026 AIAA Goddard Award for Historic Lunar Mission

  • Chandrayaan-3 received the prestigious AIAA Goddard Astronautics Award in Washington, D.C., recognizing India’s historic achievement in lunar exploration.
  • The mission made history when India became the first nation to successfully soft-land a spacecraft near the Moon’s south pole, a scientifically important region believed to contain water ice and other valuable resources.
  • The award was accepted on behalf of Indian Space Research Organisation by Vinay Kwatra, India’s Ambassador to the United States.
  • Chandrayaan-3’s success strengthened India’s position in global space exploration by demonstrating advanced lunar landing capability and generating important scientific data for future Moon missions.

Defense News

Agni-1 Missile Successfully Tested by India from Odisha Under Strategic Forces Command

  • India successfully test-fired the Agni-I ballistic missile from the Integrated Test Range Chandipur on May 22, 2026, under the supervision of the Strategic Forces Command.
  • The successful launch confirmed that all mission objectives were achieved, reinforcing India’s strategic defense preparedness and missile readiness capabilities.
  • Agni-I is a short-range ballistic missile designed for quick deployment through road and rail mobile launch systems and plays a vital role in India’s deterrence strategy.
  • The test also highlights the progress of India’s indigenous Agni missile program, which supports long-term defense modernization and strategic security objectives.

Sports news

Former India All-Rounder Vijay Shankar Retires from Domestic Cricket and IPL

  • Vijay Shankar has announced his retirement from domestic cricket and the Indian Premier League, ending a notable career as an all-rounder for Tamil Nadu cricket team and several IPL franchises.
  • He represented India national cricket team in 21 white-ball matches between 2018 and 2019, including appearances in the 2019 ICC Cricket World Cup, where he gained attention as the “3D cricketer.”
  • Shankar enjoyed a successful domestic career, captaining Tamil Nadu to titles in the Vijay Hazare Trophy, Deodhar Trophy, and Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy, while also contributing strongly with both bat and ball across formats.
  • In the IPL, he played 78 matches for teams including Chennai Super Kings, Sunrisers Hyderabad, Delhi Capitals, and Gujarat Titans, winning titles before becoming eligible for overseas franchise leagues after retirement.

Important Days News

World Turtle Day 2026: Why Protecting Turtles Matters for Biodiversity and Ecosystems

  • World Turtle Day is observed every year on May 23 to raise awareness about the protection of turtles and tortoises, some of Earth’s oldest surviving species.
  • Founded in 2000 by American Tortoise Rescue, the day highlights the growing threats these reptiles face from habitat destruction, plastic pollution, climate change, illegal wildlife trade, and fishing bycatch.
  • Turtles play a vital ecological role by supporting healthy marine, freshwater, and land ecosystems, making their conservation important for overall biodiversity and environmental balance.
  • World Turtle Day encourages people worldwide to support conservation efforts through awareness campaigns, reducing plastic use, protecting habitats, participating in clean-up drives, and promoting wildlife-friendly practices.

Current Affairs Today | 23rd May 2026 Current Affairs | Daily Current Affairs By Ashish Gautam

Haryana Court Clerk Recruitment 2026 Notification Out for 1265 Vacancies, Check Apply Online Link

The High Court of Punjab and Haryana has released the Haryana Court Clerk Recruitment 2026 Notification for 1265 vacancies under the Society for Centralized Recruitment of Staff in Subordinate Courts (S.S.S.C.). The recruitment drive has been announced for the post of Clerk in the Subordinate Courts of Haryana through direct recruitment. Interested and eligible candidates will be able to submit their online application forms from 26 May 2026. The last date to apply online for Haryana Court Clerk Recruitment 2026 is 23 June 2026.

Haryana Court Clerk Recruitment 2026

This Haryana Court Clerk Recruitment 2026 offers a major opportunity for graduate candidates preparing for government jobs in the judiciary sector. The selection process includes a Computer Based Test (CBT), Computer Proficiency Test (CPT), and document verification process. Candidates must carefully check the eligibility criteria, age limit, application fee, and selection process before applying online for the Haryana Court Clerk posts.

Haryana Court Clerk Recruitment 2026 Overview

Candidates can check the major highlights related to the recruitment process below.

Particulars Details
Organization
High Court of Punjab and Haryana
Recruitment Body S.S.S.C.
Post Name Clerk
Total Vacancies 1265
Job Location Haryana
Application Mode Online
Online Application Start Date 26 May
Last Date to Apply 23 June
Selection Process
CBT, CPT & Document Verification
Official Website www.sssc.gov.in

Haryana Court Clerk Notification 2026 PDF

The detailed employment notice for Haryana Court Clerk Recruitment 2026 has been released under Advertisement No. 36C/SSSC/HR/2026 dated 22 May 2026. The official notification contains complete details regarding vacancies, eligibility, age relaxation, exam pattern, reservation rules, and online application instructions.

Haryana Court Clerk Notification 2026: Download PDF 

Haryana Court Clerk Vacancy 2026

The recruitment drive includes 1015 existing vacancies and 250 anticipated vacancies, making the total number of posts 1265.

Category Existing Vacancies Anticipated Vacancies
General (UR) 141 62
SC (DSC) 118 24
SC (OSC) 102 21
BC-A 145 38
BC-B 101 23
EWS 113 26
ESP 25 7
PwBD 64 10
ESM 206 39
Total 1015 250

Haryana Court Clerk Eligibility Criteria 2026

Candidates must fulfil the educational qualification, language requirement, and age criteria prescribed in the official notification.

Educational Qualification

Candidates must possess:

  • Bachelor of Arts (B.A.)
  • Bachelor of Science (B.Sc.)
  • Or equivalent degree from a recognized university

Candidates must also have:

  • Proficiency in computers
  • Knowledge of Word Processing and Spreadsheets

Additionally, candidates should have passed:

  • Matriculation with Hindi or Sanskrit, OR
  • +2/B.A./M.A. with Hindi as one of the subjects

The qualification must be completed before 23 June 2026.

Haryana Court Clerk Age Limit 2026

The age limit will be calculated as on 01 January 2026.

Category Minimum Age Maximum Age
General 18 Years 42 Years
SC/BC 18 Years 47 Years
Government Employees 18 Years 45 Years
Women Categories 18 Years 47 Years
PwBD Candidates Relaxation as per rules Up to 52 Years

Haryana Court Clerk Application Fee 2026

Candidates need to pay the prescribed application fee through online mode only.

  • General Male: Rs. 1200
  • General Female: Rs. 875
  • SC/BC/EWS/ESM of Haryana: Rs. 710
  • PwBD of Haryana: NIL

Haryana Court Clerk Apply Online 2026

The online application process for Haryana Court Clerk Recruitment 2026 will begin from 26 May 2026 at 04:00 PM. Candidates can apply online through the official website of S.S.S.C.

Haryana Court Clerk Apply Online Link 2026 (Link will be active soon)

Haryana Court Clerk Selection Process 2026

The selection process consists of multiple stages, including a written examination and a computer proficiency assessment.

  • Computer Based Test (CBT)
  • Computer Proficiency Test (CPT)
  • Document Verification
  • Interaction Process

Haryana Court Clerk Exam Pattern 2026

The Computer Based Test will include objective and subjective sections.

Subject Questions Marks Duration
General Knowledge 50 50 2 hours
English Composition Objective 20 20
English Composition Subjective Essay, Letter, Precis, Translation 30
Total 100
  • Duration: 2 Hours
  • Negative Marking: 0.25 mark deduction
  • Minimum Qualifying Marks:
    • 33% in each subject
    • 40% aggregate overall

Computer Proficiency Test

Candidates qualifying the written examination will appear for the Computer Proficiency Test, which is qualifying in nature.

  • Spreadsheet Test Minimum: 40% marks
  • Typing Test: 30 WPM in English

Haryana Court Clerk Salary 2026

The salary and allowances for selected candidates will be governed according to the Haryana Government rules applicable to Subordinate Courts employees.

  • Government pay scale
  • Dearness Allowance
  • House Rent Allowance
  • Medical benefits
  • Other government allowances

Test Prime

How to Restart Preparation for IBPS SO After a Long Gap?

Taking a long break from IBPS SO preparation is more common than most aspirants think. Some stop due to job pressure, college exams, family responsibilities, health issues, or simply because motivation fades after repeated exam attempts. The difficult part is not the break itself it is restarting again. Many candidates feel lost when they return.

How to Restart Preparation for IBPS SO After a Long Gap?

They forget concepts, lose confidence in mock tests, and compare themselves with others who never stopped preparing. But the good thing about competitive exam preparation is that knowledge does not disappear completely. Your previous effort still helps you restart faster than a beginner.

Accept That the First Few Days Will Feel Slow

  • One of the biggest mistakes aspirants make after a gap is expecting instant productivity.
  • In the beginning, your speed may feel low, concentration may break frequently, and even basic topics may seem unfamiliar.
  • Do not judge your preparation based on the first week.
  • The mind takes time to regain exam rhythm.
  • Instead of worrying about lost time, focus on rebuilding consistency slowly.

Start with the Latest Exam Pattern and Syllabus

Before opening books again, understand what has changed during your break. This helps you avoid studying outdated material and gives clarity about where to focus more. Check:

  • Latest IBPS SO exam pattern
  • Section-wise weightage
  • New question trends
  • Changes in professional knowledge topics
  • Difficulty level of recent exams

Do Not Restart from Zero

Most aspirants waste time revising every topic from the beginning. Instead, first identify:

  • Topics you still remember well
  • Topics you partially remember
  • Completely forgotten areas

For example:

  • If reasoning was your strong area earlier, revise puzzles and seating arrangement first.
  • If English was comfortable for you, start daily reading practice immediately.
  • If Professional Knowledge was weak earlier, dedicate extra time there from the start.

Create a Small but Consistent Study Routine

After a long gap, studying 10–12 hours suddenly is unrealistic. Start with a manageable routine.

A practical restart plan can look like this:

Time Period Study Goal
First 7 Days 2–4 hours daily
Second Week 4–6 hours daily
After Consistency Builds 6–8 focused hours

Focus More on Professional Knowledge

For IBPS SO, the Professional Knowledge section is the deciding factor because it carries high importance in final selection.

Whether you are preparing for:

  • IT Officer
  • HR Officer
  • Marketing Officer
  • Agriculture Field Officer
  • Law Officer
  • Rajbhasha Adhikari

Instead:

  • Revise one topic daily
  • Make short notes
  • Practice topic-wise MCQs
  • Follow recent industry-related updates

Begin Mock Tests Early

Do not wait to feel fully prepared before attempting mocks. Start with sectional tests to rebuild speed, confidence, and exam temperament. Even low scores help identify weak areas and track improvement.

Avoid Comparing Yourself with Others

After a long gap, your pace may feel slower than others. That is normal. Focus on consistent daily progress instead of comparing your preparation journey with other aspirants.

Use Short Revision Cycles

Long gaps usually affect memory retention. So instead of monthly revision, follow short revision cycles:

  • Revise today’s topics before sleeping
  • Weekly quick revision every Sunday
  • Monthly full revision tests
  • Frequent revision helps concepts stay fresh and reduces stress before exams.

Improve Your Mental Discipline Again

Preparation gaps often reduce study discipline more than knowledge itself. To rebuild focus:

  • Keep phone distractions away
  • Study at fixed timings
  • Avoid overthinking previous failures
  • Track daily targets
  • Take proper sleep
  • A stable routine improves concentration naturally.

Stay Focused on Your Goal

Restarting IBPS SO preparation after a long gap may feel difficult in the beginning, but with consistency and the right mindset, candidates can regain their preparation flow and improve gradually.

  • Focus on rebuilding consistency instead of studying long hours initially
  • Avoid comparing your preparation speed with other aspirants
  • Start with basic revision and sectional mock tests
  • Analyze weak areas and improve step by step
  • Follow a disciplined routine with regular revision
  • Stay patient, as confidence returns with continuous practice
  • Remember that many candidates clear IBPS SO even after restarting preparation after a gap

Bank MahaPack Plus

Mixture & Alligation Questions for Bank Exams

Mixture and Alligation is an important topic in the quantitative aptitude section of competitive exams, especially in the new pattern of bank and insurance exams. Questions are now more application-based and require a clear understanding of ratios, percentages, averages, and logical calculations to solve real exam-level problems quickly and accurately.

Mixture & Alligation Questions for Bank Exams

Mixture and Alligation Questions for the latest bank exams are considered highly scoring as the topic is concept-based and can be mastered with regular practice in a short time. The new exam pattern focuses on calculation speed and application-oriented questions, making this topic important for improving accuracy, confidence, and overall performance in the quantitative aptitude section.

1. In what Ratio the grocer mix two types of pulses Costing Rs. 15/kg and Rs. 20/kg respectively to get a una mixture of pulses to get a mixture costing Rs. 16.50/kg?

a) 3:7

b) 5:7

c) 7:3

d) 7:5

Answer: d) 7:5

2. A vessel is filled with liquid, 3 parts of which are water and 5 parts syrup. How much of the mixture must be drawn off and replaced with water so that the mixture may be half water and half syrup?

a) 1/3

b) 1/4

c)1/5

d) 1/7

Answer: b) 1/4

3. 8 litres are drawn from a cask full of wine and is then filled with water. This operation is performed three more times. The ratio of the quantity of wine now left in cask to that of the water is 16 : 65. How much wine the cask hold originally?

a) 18 litres

b) 24 litres

c) 32 litres

d) 42 litres

Answer: c) 32 litres

4. A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 18% profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The Quantity sold at 18% profit is

a) 400 kg

b) 600 kg

c) 560 kg

d) 640 kg

Answer: b) 600 kg

5. A container contains 40 litres of milk. From this container, 4 litres of milk was taken out and replaced by water. This process was repeated further two times. How much milk is now contained by the container?

a) 29.16 litres

b) 28 litres

c) 28.2 litres

d) 26 litres

Answer: a) 29.16 litres

6. A milk vendor has 2 cans of milk. The first contains 25% water and the rest milk. The second contains 50% water. How much milk should he mix from each of the containers so as to get 12 litres of milk such that the ratio of water to milk is 3 : 5?

a) 5 litres, 7 litres

b) 4 litres, 8 litres

c) 6 litres, 6 litres

d)  7 litres, 4 litres

Answer: c) 6 litres, 6 litres

7. In what ratio, water must be mixed with fruit juice costing Rs.24 per litre so that the juice would be worth of Rs.20 per litre?

a) 1:4

b) 1:5

c) 1:6

d) 2:5

Answer: b) 1:5

8. A shopkeeper has 50 kg of rice. A part of which he sells at 10% profit and remaining at 5% loss. He gains 7% on the whole. Find the quantity sold at 10% profit.

a) 40 kg

b) 15 kg

c) 35 kg

d) 20 kg

Answer: c) 35 kg

9. Tea worth Rs. 126 per kg and Rs. 135 per kg are mixed with a third variety in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2. If the mixture is worth Rs. 153 per kg, the price of the third variety per kg will be:

a)Rs. 165.5

b)Rs. 170.5

c)Rs. 175.5

d)Rs. 180.5

Answer: c) Rs. 175.5

10. In what ratio must a person mix three kinds of metal costing Rs.60/kg, Rs.75/kg and Rs.100 /kg so that the resultant alloy when sold at Rs.96/kg results in a gain of 20%?

a)4:2:1

b)2:1:2

c)5:4:1

d)1:4:2

Answer: a) 4:2:1

11. How many kilograms of rice of Rs 6.4/kg should be mixed with 10 kg of rice of Rs 4.8/kg,  in such that by selling the mixture at 20 % profit, which is Rs. 1.12 more than the average price per kg of both the varieties of rice

a)12 kg

b)15 kg

c)10 kg

d)11 kg

Answer: a) 12 kg

12. Three types of Rice of Rs. 1.27, Rs. 1.29 and Rs. 1.32 per kg are mixed together to be sold at Rs. 1.30 per kg. in what ratio should this rice be mixed.

a)1:5

b) 2:6

c) 3:5

d) 4:5

Answer: c) 3:5

13. How much does a shop owner mix 4 types of rice worth Rs. 95, Rs. 60, Rs. 90 &Rs.50 per kg so that he can make the mixture of these rice worth Rs. 80 per kg.

a)4:4:5:1

b) 7:4:2:3

c) 3:9:5:8

d) 4:6:5:7

Answer: d) 4:6:5:7

14. Two vessels A and B contain milk and water mixed in the ratio 4: 3 and 2: 3. The ratio in which these mixtures be mixed to form a new mixture containing half milk and half water is

a) 7: 5

b) 6: 5

c) 5: 6

d) 4: 3

Answer: a) 7:5

15. A milkman makes 20% profit by selling milk mixed with water at Rs. 9 per litre. If the cost price of 1 litre pure milk is Rs. 10, then the ratio of milk and water in the said mixture is

a) 3: 1

b) 4: 1

c) 3: 2

d) 4: 3

Answer: b) 4:1

16. In two types of stainless steel, the ratio of chromium and steel are 2: 11 and 5: 21 respectively. In what proportion should the two types be mixed so that the ratio of chromium to steel in the mixed type becomes 7: 32?

a)2: 3

b) 3: 4

c) 1:2

d) 1:3

Answer: b) 3:4

17. Two liquids A and B are in the ratio 5 : 1 in container 1 and 1 : 3 in container 2. In what ratio should the contents of the two containers be mixed so as to obtain a mixture of A and B in the ratio 1:1 ?

a) 2 : 3

b) 4 : 3

c) 3 : 2

d) 3 : 4

Answer: b) 4:3

18. There are two containers: the first contains 500 ml of alcohol, while the second contains 500 ml of  water. Three cups of alcohol from the first container is taken out and is mixed well in the second container. Then three cups of this mixture is taken out and is mixed in the first container. Let A denote the proportion of water in the first container and B denote the proportion of alcohol in the second container. Then,

a) A > B

b) A < B

c) A = B

d) None of These

Answer: c) A = B

19. Cost of two types of pulses is Rs.15 and Rs, 20 per kg, respectively. If both the pulses are mixed together in the ratio 2:3, then what should be the price of mixed variety of pulses per kg?

a) Rs. 22 per kg

b) Rs. 30 per kg

c) Rs. 10 per kg

d) Rs. 18 per kg

Answer: d) Rs. 18 per kg

20. A dealer has 1000 kg sugar and he sells a part of it at 8% profit and the rest of it at 18% profit. The overall profit he earns is 14%. What is the quantity which is sold at 18% profit?

a) 250 kg

b) 600 kg

c) 620 kg

d) 400 kg

Answer: b) 600 kg

Bank Mahapack

How to Solve Mixture and Alligation Questions Quickly

To solve Mixture and Alligation questions quickly in bank exams, candidates should first understand the basic concepts of ratio, average, and percentage. Most questions are formula-based and can be solved faster by using the alligation method instead of lengthy calculations.

  • Tips to Solve Mixture and Alligation Questions Quickly
  • Learn the basic alligation formula and ratio concepts clearly.
  • Practice questions based on profit & loss, replacement, and mixing of liquids.
  • Use shortcuts and approximation techniques to save time in exams.
  • Focus on calculation speed for percentages and averages.
  • Attempt easy and direct formula-based questions first during the exam.
  • Revise commonly asked question types from previous year papers and mock tests.
  • Practice timer-based quizzes regularly to improve speed and accuracy.

Mixture and Alligation Questions Quickly

Candidates preparing for SBI, IBPS, RBI Grade B, Insurance, and other competitive exams should practice Mixture and Alligation questions daily to strengthen their quantitative aptitude section and score better marks in the examination.

How to Analyze Mock Test Mistakes for RBI Grade B 2026 Exam

Preparing for the RBI Grade B 2026 exam requires more than just completing the syllabus and attempting mock tests regularly. Many aspirants give several mocks but fail to improve because they do not spend enough time analyzing their mistakes. Mock test analysis is the stage where actual improvement happens.

How to Analyze Mock Test Mistakes for RBI Grade B 2026 Exam

It helps candidates understand weak areas, improve accuracy, strengthen concepts, and develop better exam strategies. A proper analysis can significantly increase your performance in both Phase 1 and Phase 2 of the RBI Grade B examination.

Why Mock Test Analysis is Important

Attempting RBI Grade B Mock Tests without reviewing mistakes is like practicing without learning. Analysis helps candidates:

  • Identify weak topics and sections
  • Improve speed and accuracy
  • Reduce repeated mistakes
  • Learn better time management
  • Build confidence before the actual exam

1. Maintain a Separate Mistake Log

Create a dedicated notebook, Excel sheet, or digital tracker for recording mistakes from every mock test. For each incorrect question, note down:

  • The question/topic
  • Your answer and the correct answer
  • The reason behind the mistake
  • Key concept involved
  • This helps you track progress and identify patterns over time.

2. Categorize Your Mistakes

Divide your errors into categories to understand where the problem lies. Common categories include:

  • Conceptual Mistakes
  • These happen when the basic concept is unclear or incomplete.
  • Calculation Errors
  • Mistakes due to incorrect calculations, formula usage, or approximation errors.
  • Careless Mistakes
  • Errors caused by misreading questions, marking wrong options, or overlooking keywords.
  • Time-Management Mistakes
  • Questions left unanswered or solved incorrectly because of lack of time.
  • Once categorized, it becomes easier to work on the exact issue.

3. Analyze Section-wise Performance

The RBI Grade B exam contains multiple sections such as:

  • Quantitative Aptitude
  • Reasoning Ability
  • English Language
  • General Awareness
  • Economic & Social Issues
  • Finance & Management

Check your performance section-wise after every mock. Focus on:

  • Accuracy percentage
  • Time spent
  • Difficulty level of attempted questions
  • Topics with maximum mistakes

4. Identify Repeated Errors

One of the most important steps is finding repeated mistakes. If you are continuously making errors in the same topic, it means revision alone is not enough.

For example:

  • Repeated errors in Data Interpretation may indicate weak calculation speed.
  • Frequent mistakes in current affairs may suggest poor revision strategy.
  • Repeated confusion in Finance & Management concepts may require conceptual clarity.
  • Repeated mistakes should become your highest priority during revision.

5. Check Your Time Allocation

Many candidates lose marks because they spend too much time on difficult questions. Analyze:

  • Which section consumed the most time
  • Which questions took unusually long
  • Whether easy questions were skipped because of poor time management
  • Try developing a fixed attempt strategy for future mocks.

6. Reattempt Wrong Questions

After analyzing a mock test, revisit the incorrect questions after a few days and solve them again without checking solutions.

This method helps in:

  • Improving retention
  • Strengthening weak concepts
  • Reducing repeat mistakes in future mocks

If you still cannot solve the question correctly, revise the concept immediately.

7. Focus on Accuracy Before Attempts

In RBI Grade B, negative marking can significantly affect scores. Instead of blindly increasing attempts, work on improving accuracy.

During analysis, calculate:

  • Correct attempts
  • Incorrect attempts
  • Accuracy percentage

8. Make a Corrective Action Plan

Mock analysis should always end with an improvement strategy. Based on your mistakes:

  • Revise weak concepts
  • Practice topic-wise questions
  • Attempt sectional tests
  • Improve calculation speed
  • Read editorials and current affairs regularly
  • Your preparation should evolve after every mock test.

Common Mistakes Students Make During Mock Analysis

Only checking scores instead of reviewing questions

  • Ignoring easy mistakes
  • Not maintaining error notes
  • Repeating the same exam strategy despite poor results
  • Spending too much time on solutions without understanding concepts
  • Avoiding these habits can make mock tests far more productive.

Tips for RBI Grade B Mock Analysis

Understanding why mistakes happen and working systematically to correct them can dramatically improve your performance.

  • Spend at least 2–3 hours analyzing every full-length mock
  • Focus more on quality analysis than the number of mocks
  • Review both correct and incorrect answers
  • Compare performance with previous mocks
  • Revise weak topics weekly
  • Consistency in analysis is the key to steady improvement.

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