Daily Current Affairs Quiz: 4th November, 2025

This Current Affairs Quiz of 4th of November has been curated to support aspirants preparing for RBI and other banking examinations. It provides an effective platform to assess and update your knowledge of important events, economic trends, and policy changes. Engaging with such quizzes regularly can significantly contribute to better accuracy and confidence during the actual examination.

Daily Current Affairs: 5 November 2025

Q1. Recently, the first Community Reserve of Bihar has been designated as a Ramsar Site of international importance for its rich biodiversity and ecological value. Which of the following wetlands received this recognition?

(a) Kanwar Lake

(b) Gogabeel Lake

(c) Baraila Lake

(d) Kusheshwar Asthan Wetland

(e) Nagi-Nakti Bird Sanctuary

The correct answer is: (b) Gogabeel Lake

Explanation:

• India’s one more wetland, Gogabeel Lake in Katihar district of Bihar, has recently been designated as a Ramsar site of international importance.
• It is a part of the Trans-Gangetic Plains located in Bihar and represents an ox-bow type wetland, formed due to the meandering of rivers.
• The lake is flanked by the Mahananda River to the north-east and the Ganga River to the south.
• Gogabeel Lake holds the distinction of being Bihar’s first Community Reserve under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Q2. Which country has become the first in the world to impose a generational ban on tobacco smoking, prohibiting the sale and use of tobacco products for individuals born on or after 1 January 2007?

(a) New Zealand

(b) Bhutan

(c) Maldives

(d) Singapore

(e) Australia

The correct answer is: (c) Maldives

Explanation:

• The island nation of Maldives has made history by becoming the first country in the world to impose a generational ban on tobacco smoking. Under this new law, the buying, selling, or use of tobacco products is completely prohibited for anyone born on or after 1 January 2007.
• According to the legislation, individuals born on or after this date will never be legally permitted to purchase, consume, or be sold any form of tobacco product throughout their lifetime.
• This landmark decision is part of the Maldives’ broader and long-term national campaign against smoking, aimed at protecting future generations from tobacco addiction and its associated health risks.

Q3. The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India, has facilitated the first export consignment of 12 metric tonnes of Fortified Rice Kernel (FRK) from Chhattisgarh. To which country was this consignment sent?

(a) Brazil

(b) Costa Rica

(c) Mexico

(d) Argentina

(e) Chile

The Correct Answer: (b) Costa Rica

Explanation:

• The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India.
• APEDA has facilitated India’s first export consignment of 12 metric tonnes of Fortified Rice Kernel (FRK) from Chhattisgarh to Costa Rica.
• Fortified Rice Kernel (FRK) is produced by blending rice flour with micronutrients such as iron, folic acid, and vitamin B12.

Q4. Consider the following statements about India’s FDI trends as per RBI’s 2024–25 FLA Census:

1. Over 75% of FDI-reporting firms were foreign subsidiaries.

2. Services sector attracted more FDI than manufacturing.

3. Outward Direct Investment (ODI) growth outpaced FDI growth.

Which of the statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

(e) 3 only

The Correct Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

• According to the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) 2024–25 Foreign Liabilities and Assets (FLA) Census, the United States and Singapore together accounted for over one-third of India’s total Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), reaffirming their position as the country’s top investment partners.
• The United States contributed 20% of total FDI, while Singapore accounted for 14.3%, followed by Mauritius, the United Kingdom, and the Netherlands. The report highlights that more than 75% of FDI-reporting firms were foreign subsidiaries, reflecting robust overseas ownership, technology inflows, and continued investor confidence in India’s growth story. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The manufacturing sector emerged as the leading recipient of FDI, attracting 48.4% of the total market value, followed by the services sector, aligning with India’s industrialisation and Make-in-India objectives. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• India’s total FDI stock rose to ₹68.75 lakh crore in FY25, up from ₹61.88 lakh crore in FY24, marking an 11.1% year-on-year growth and showcasing the steady global confidence in India’s economic potential.
• At the same time, Outward Direct Investment (ODI) — where Indian firms expand operations abroad — stood at ₹11.66 lakh crore in FY25. The top ODI destinations were Singapore, the US, the UK, and the Netherlands. Notably, ODI growth (17.9%) outpaced FDI growth (11.1%), bringing down the inward-to-outward direct investment ratio from 6.3 to 5.9 times on a yearly basis. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Additionally, non-financial companies accounted for over 90% of total FDI equity, underscoring the dominance of India’s core industrial sectors in attracting foreign capital and driving long-term sustainable growth.

Q5. With reference to as per the OECD International Migration Outlook 2025, Consider the following statements about India’s migration trends:

1. India was the top source of international migrants to OECD nations in 2023.

2. UK, Canada, and the US accounted for over 60% of Indian migration.

3. India ranked third after China and the Philippines in foreign student enrolment.

Which of the statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

(e) 1 only

The Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

• India remains the largest country of origin for international migrants, as per the OECD’s International Migration Outlook 2025.
• In 2023, around 6 lakh (600,000) Indians migrated to OECD countries, marking an 8% increase from 2022. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Top destinations: United Kingdom, Canada, and the United States — together accounting for over 60% of Indian migration to OECD nations. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• UK: 1.44 lakh migrants (↑28%) — mainly under the Health and Care Worker Visa.
• Canada: 1.4 lakh migrants.
• United States: 68,000 migrants.
• Health and Education Corridors:
• India among the top sources of foreign-trained doctors and nurses in OECD countries (2021–23).
• 40% of migrant doctors and 37% of migrant nurses in OECD nations are from Asia — led by India and the Philippines.
• OECD warns of healthcare workforce strain in origin countries; recommends ethical recruitment and skill partnerships.

Education Migration:

• India accounted for 14% of international tertiary students in OECD countries in 2023 (2nd after China’s 17%). Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• Student migration decline due to visa and policy tightening:
• US: −39%
• UK: −26%
• Canada: −39%
• Australia: −22%
• Many students now shifting from education to employment in healthcare, IT, and engineering via post-study work routes.

Naturalisation Trends (2023):

• 2.25 lakh Indians acquired citizenship in OECD countries — highest among all nationalities.
• Canada: 76,000 (34%)
• US: 52,000 (23%)
• Australia: 40,000 (18%)
• Germany & UK: Remaining share.

Gender and Employment:

• Indian women’s employment rates abroad improving, especially in healthcare, caregiving, and education.
• Male migrants still dominate overall migration numbers.

Migration Shift:

• India’s migration pattern moving from low-skilled labour flows to high-skill, medical, and education-driven migration.
• Supported by bilateral labour mobility agreements and diaspora-focused policy reforms.