Daily Current Affairs Quiz 3rd June 2026 for Banking & Competitive Exams |

Daily Current Affairs: 3 June, 2026

Q1. Vice Admiral Vineet McCarty assumed charge as the 20th Commander-in-Chief of which unique, unified operational command of the Indian Armed Forces?

(a) Western Naval Command

(b) Strategic Forces Command

(d) Northern Army Command

(e) Eastern Air Command

Answer: c

Solution:

Vice Admiral Vineet McCarty, AVSM assumed charge as the 20th Commander-in-Chief of the Andaman & Nicobar Command (ANC) at Sri Vijaya Puram on 1 June 2026.
He succeeds as the head of India’s only tri-service command, which integrates the capabilities of the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
Vice Admiral McCarty was commissioned into the Indian Navy on 1 July 1989.
He is a specialist in Gunnery and Missiles and has extensive operational and leadership experience in the Navy.
The Flag Officer is an alumnus of the Defence Services Staff College and the National Defence College.

Q2. Major General Rachel Thomas recently assumed charge as the Additional Director General of which specialized corps of the Indian Armed Forces?

Army Medical Corps (AMC)
Military Nursing Service (MNS)
Army Dental Corps (ADC)
Corps of Signals
Army Ordnance Corps

Answer: b

Solution:

Maj Gen Rachel Thomas assumed the appointment of Additional Director General (ADG), Military Nursing Service (MNS) on 1 June 2026.
She succeeds Maj Gen Lissamma P.V., who retired from service on 31 May 2026 after completing nearly four decades of distinguished service to the nation.

Q3. Air Marshal Tarun Chaudhry assumed charge as the Air Officer Commanding-in-Chief (AOC-in-C) of which operational command of the Indian Air Force on June 1, 2026?

(a) Western Air Command

(b) Eastern Air Command

(d) Southern Air Command

(e) Maintenance Command

Answer: c

Solution:

Air Marshal Tarun Chaudhry, AVSM, VSM assumed the appointment of Air Officer Commanding-in-Chief (AOC-in-C), Central Air Command on 1 June 2026.
He was commissioned into the Fighter Stream of the Indian Air Force in December 1989.
Air Marshal Chaudhry is a highly experienced fighter pilot and senior officer with extensive operational and command experience in the Indian Air Force.
As the head of the Central Air Command, he will be responsible for overseeing air operations, preparedness, and strategic activities in one of the Indian Air Force’s key operational commands.

Q4. What specific amount was transferred to State Governments as Devolution of Share of Taxes by the Centre during FY 2025-26?

(a) ₹1,06,086 crore

(b) ₹6,78,961 crore

(d) ₹13,92,971 crore

(e) ₹26,23,264 crore

Answer: d

Solution:

The Government of India has consolidated and published the provisional (unaudited) accounts for the Financial Year 2025–26.
During FY 2025–26, the Government received ₹33,85,982 crore, which is 99.4% of the Revised Estimates (RE) 2025–26 for total receipts.

Total Receipts

Total receipts of ₹33,85,982 crore comprise:
- Tax Revenue (Net to Centre): ₹26,23,264 crore
- Non-Tax Revenue: ₹6,78,961 crore
- Non-Debt Capital Receipts: ₹83,757 crore
Non-Debt Capital Receipts include:
- Recovery of Loans: ₹24,617 crore
- Miscellaneous Capital Receipts: ₹59,140 crore

Transfer to States

The Central Government transferred ₹13,92,971 crore to State Governments as their share of taxes.
This amount is ₹1,06,086 crore higher than the devolution made during the previous financial year.

Total Expenditure

Total expenditure incurred by the Government during FY 2025–26 stood at ₹49,05,151 crore, representing 98.8% of the Revised Estimates (RE) 2025–26.
The expenditure consists of:
- Revenue Expenditure: ₹38,36,032 crore
- Capital Expenditure: ₹10,69,119 crore

Major Components of Revenue Expenditure

Out of the total revenue expenditure:
- Interest Payments: ₹12,42,575 crore
- Major Subsidies: ₹4,53,854 crore

Q5. The ‘Swachh Gaon, Surakshit Jalvayu’ (SGSJ) campaign launched in June 2026 is a joint collaborative initiative between the Ministry of Jal Shakti and which other Union Ministry?

(a) Ministry of Rural Development

(b) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

(d) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

(e) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Answer: c

Solution:

Union Minister of Jal Shakti C.R. Patil launched the ‘Swachh Gaon, Surakshit Jalvayu’ (SGSJ) campaign and the National IEC Campaign on Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026 in New Delhi on 1 June 2026.
The campaign has been launched by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS) under the Ministry of Jal Shakti in collaboration with the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) on the occasion of World Environment Day 2026.
The campaign will be implemented from 1 June to 5 June 2026, with a preparatory phase conducted from 25 May to 29 May 2026.
The primary objective of the campaign is to create awareness about Mission LiFE, behavioural change, environmental protection, and sustainable waste management practices in rural areas.
The campaign supports the objectives of Swachh Bharat Mission (Grameen) 2.0, which promotes the principles of Refuse, Reduce, Reuse, and Recycle (4Rs) for plastic waste management and Reduce, Reuse, and Recharge (3Rs) for greywater management.
It also encourages the adoption of a circular economy, promotes the Waste-to-Wealth approach, and aims to transform villages into ODF Plus Model Villages.
A major focus of the campaign is to generate awareness and sensitization regarding the Solid Waste Management (SWM) Rules, 2026, which came into effect on 1 April 2026.
The National IEC Campaign will simplify the provisions of the SWM Rules, 2026 for States and Union Territories, district administrations, rural local bodies, households, institutions, bulk waste generators, and other stakeholders involved in rural waste management.
The campaign will communicate the provisions of the rules through simple and citizen-friendly messages to promote awareness, behavioural change, community participation, and better compliance with waste management regulations.

Q6. What was the headline year-on-year (YoY) growth rate recorded by the overall Index of Industrial Production (IIP) for the month of April 2026 under the new series?

(a) 3.2%

(b) 4.9%

(d) (-)5.1%

(e) 6.2%

Answer: e

Solution:

The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has revised the base year of the All India Index of Industrial Production (IIP) from 2011–12 to 2022–23 to better reflect the current structure and dynamics of India’s industrial sector.
The revision exercise was carried out under the guidance of the Technical Advisory Committee for Base Year Revision of the All India Index of Industrial Production (TAC-IIP).
The Committee’s report was released on 25 May 2026, paving the way for a more comprehensive and representative industrial production index.

IIP Performance in April 2026

The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) recorded a growth of 4.9% in April 2026 compared to April 2025.
The Quick Estimate of IIP stood at 118.9 in April 2026, up from 113.4 in April 2025.

Sector-wise Growth Rates (April 2026)

Mining & Quarrying: (-) 5.1%
Manufacturing: 6.2%
Electricity & Gas Supply: 4.9%
Water Supply, Sewerage & Waste Management: 6.6%

Sector-wise Index Values (April 2026)

Mining & Quarrying: 104.6
Manufacturing: 119.3
Electricity & Gas Supply: 125.5
Water Supply, Sewerage & Waste Management: 146.1

Q7. Under the newly notified Immigration and Foreigners (Amendment) Rules, 2026, foreign nationals are permitted to complete their official state registration at any point of time within which maximum duration from their arrival in India?

(a) Within 14 days of arrival

(b) Within 30 days of arrival

(d) Before the expiry of 180 days

(e) Exactly on the 365th day of arrival

Answer: d

Solution:

The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has notified the Immigration and Foreigners (Amendment) Rules, 2026, introducing important changes to registration timelines and the appeals mechanism under the Immigration and Foreigners Rules, 2025.
The amendment revises the registration requirements for eligible foreign nationals staying in India for extended periods.
Under the new rules, registration can now be completed at any time before the expiry of 180 days from the date of arrival in India.
Earlier, foreign nationals were required to register within 14 days after completing 180 days of stay in India.
The revised provision replaces the earlier rule and provides greater flexibility by allowing registration during the 180-day period itself.
Registration beyond the prescribed 180-day period will now be permitted only in emergent or exceptional circumstances.
The amendment is aimed at simplifying compliance procedures, improving administrative efficiency, and ensuring better monitoring of foreign nationals residing in India.

Q8. Telangana was carved out from the __________ part of Andhra Pradesh, and was originally recognized as the __________ state of India at the exact time of its creation in 2014.

(a) Southeastern; 25th

(b) Northwestern; 29th

(d) Southwestern; 29th

(e) Northwestern; 22nd

Answer: b

Solution:

Telangana Formation Day is celebrated every year on 2 June to commemorate the creation of the state of Telangana.
On 2 June 2014, Telangana was officially carved out of the northwestern region of Andhra Pradesh and became the 29th state of India.
The state was formed following the enactment of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, which bifurcated the erstwhile state of Andhra Pradesh into two separate states:
- Telangana
- Andhra Pradesh (Residuary State)
Hyderabad was designated as the capital of Telangana.
The formation of Telangana marked the culmination of a long-standing movement demanding a separate state for the people of the region.

Q9. In which country/territory was the 22nd Asian Under-20 Athletics Championships 2026 hosted, where India registered its best-ever away performance?

(a) Japan

(b) South Korea

(d) Qatar

(e) Singapore

Answer: c

Solution:

India delivered its best-ever performance outside home soil at the 22nd Asian Under-20 Athletics Championships 2026 held in Hong Kong.
The Indian contingent finished second in the overall medal standings, registering a historic runner-up finish at the continental event.
India won a total of 19 medals, comprising:
- 10 Gold Medals
- 5 Silver Medals
- 4 Bronze Medals
The outstanding performance highlights the growing strength of India’s junior athletics programme and the emergence of a talented new generation of athletes.
The achievement is India’s best-ever result at the Asian Under-20 Athletics Championships held outside the country, reflecting significant progress in track and field development.
The championships also served as an important qualifying event for the World Under-20 Athletics Championships 2026, scheduled to be held in Eugene, United States, from 5–9 August 2026.

Q10. What was the total value of marine products exported by India during the financial year FY 2025–26, marking an all-time record high?

(a) ₹49,037.93 crore

(b) ₹20,263.27 crore

(d) ₹73,890.46 crore

(e) ₹91,250.00 crore

Answer: d

Solution:

India exported a record 19,72,018 metric tonnes (MT) of seafood worth ₹73,890.46 crore (USD 8.46 billion) during FY 2025–26, achieving an all-time high in both export volume and value despite challenging global market conditions.
The United States and China remained the two largest importers of Indian seafood during the year.

Frozen Shrimp Remains the Top Export Item

Frozen shrimp continued to be India’s leading seafood export product, earning ₹49,037.93 crore (USD 5,624.48 million).
It accounted for 40.19% of total export quantity and 66.52% of total export earnings in US dollar terms.
Shrimp exports registered growth of 13.16% in rupee value and 8.64% in dollar value during FY 2025–26.
India exported 7,92,647 MT of frozen shrimp during the year.
The major destinations for frozen shrimp exports were:
- United States: 2,56,128 MT
- China: 1,69,505 MT
- European Union: 1,35,599 MT
- Southeast Asia: 83,810 MT
- Japan: 40,776 MT
- Middle East: 30,478 MT
Exports of Litopenaeus vannamei (L. vannamei) and Black Tiger shrimp recorded growth in both volume and value.

Other Major Seafood Exports

Frozen fish was the second-largest export item, generating ₹5,658.37 crore (USD 643.70 million).
Dried seafood products ranked third, earning ₹5,079.09 crore (USD 577.44 million) and recording a strong growth of 78.05% in rupee value terms.
Exports of frozen squid reached 1,02,060 MT, valued at ₹4,493.80 crore (USD 513.84 million).
Frozen cuttlefish exports totalled 67,157 MT worth USD 331.96 million, with growth of 13.32% in quantity and 16.25% in dollar value.
Chilled seafood products earned ₹622.31 crore (USD 71.27 million).
Live seafood products recorded a growth of 11.46% in dollar value, reaching USD 62.43 million.

Major Export Markets

The United States remained India’s largest seafood market in value terms, importing 2,79,193 MT worth USD 2,328.74 million (₹20,263.27 crore).
Frozen shrimp accounted for 93.55% of India’s seafood export value to the United States.
China emerged as the largest destination in terms of quantity, importing 4,90,369 MT worth USD 1,611.32 million.
The European Union remained the third-largest market, importing 2,97,518 MT valued at USD 1,592.09 million.
Southeast Asia imported 4,51,756 MT worth USD 1,348.97 million.
Japan imported 1,05,228 MT valued at USD 452.91 million.
The Middle East imported 76,743 MT worth USD 283 million.

Major Seafood Export Ports

The top three ports handling India’s seafood exports during FY 2025–26 were:
- Visakhapatnam (Vizag) Port
- Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT)
- Kochi Port