IBPS Calendar 2026-27 Out @ibps.in for PO, Clerk, SO & RRB Exam Dates, Download Official PDF

The release of the IBPS Calendar 2026-27 has provided much-needed clarity for lakhs of banking aspirants across the country. With the tentative exam dates for IBPS PO, Clerk, SO, and RRB now announced, candidates can streamline their preparation strategy and begin planning for the upcoming recruitment cycle well in advance..

IBPS Calendar 2026-27 PDF Out: Check PO, Clerk, SO & RRB Exam Dates

The released schedule covers the major stages of the recruitment process, including notifications, online registrations, Preliminary and Main examinations, as well as interview rounds wherever applicable. Aspirants targeting positions in public sector banks can use the calendar to create a focused study plan, prioritize upcoming exams, and maximize their preparation time for multiple opportunities throughout the 2026-27 banking recruitment season.

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Note: Candidates preparing for the IBPS PO 2026 examination should now accelerate their preparation as the official IBPS PO Notification 2026 is expected to be released shortly. With the Prelims Exam scheduled to begin from 22 August 2026 as per the IBPS Calendar 2026-27, aspirants will have limited time left for revision, mock tests, and strengthening weak areas after the notification release.

IBPS Exam Calendar 2026: Overview

The schedule outlines the tentative dates for prelims, mains, and single-stage exams, helping candidates clearly track the recruitment process and align their preparation for each phase in advance. Candidates can download the IBPS Exam Calendar 2026–27 PDF to organize their preparation strategy for all major IBPS examinations.

IBPS Exam Calendar 2026
Organization
Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS)
Exam Name
IBPS PO, Clerk, SO, and IBPS RRB
Posts Covered
PO, Clerk (CSA), SO, Officer Scale I, II, III, Office Assistants
Category Bank Jobs
Selection Process
Prelims, Mains, Interview (Depends on Post)
IBPS Exam Calendar 2026
Released
Official Website www.ibps.in
IBPS Calendar 2026 (Official) Download PDF

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About IBPS

The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) is India’s premier recruitment agency for Public Sector Banks and Regional Rural Banks. Every year, IBPS conducts Common Recruitment Processes (CRPs) for Probationary Officers, Clerks, Specialist Officers, and RRB positions on behalf of participating banks across the country.

IBPS Exam Dates 2026 for Public Sector Banks (PSBs)

These exams are conducted in multiple phases, including Prelims and Mains stages, and are crucial for candidates aiming to secure positions in leading PSBs. Having clarity on these dates allows aspirants to structure their preparation efficiently and stay ahead in the competition.

Exam Name Prelims Exam Date Mains Exam Date
IBPS PO 2026 (CRP PO/MT-XVI) 22 & 23 August 2026 4 October 2026
IBPS SO 2026 (CRP SPL-XVI) 29 August 2026 1 November 2026
IBPS Clerk 2026 (CRP CSA-XVI) 10 & 11 October 2026 27 December 2026

 

Important Dates for IBPS Exam Calendar 2026-27

IBPS RRB 2026 Exams Dates (CRP RRBs-XV)

The IBPS RRB 2026 exams will be conducted for Officer Scale I, II & III, and Office Assistant posts. Officer Scale II & III candidates appear for a single online exam (no separate Prelims), while Officer Scale I and Office Assistants have both Prelims and Mains stages.

Exam Name Prelims Exam Date Mains / Single Exam Date
RRB Officer Scale I (CRP RRBs-XV) 21 & 22 November 2026 20 December 2026
RRB Officer Scale II & III N/A (Single Exam) 20 December 2026
RRB Office Assistant / Clerk (CRP RRBs-XV) 6, 12 & 13 December 2026 30 January 2027

IBPS 2026 Exam Calendar: Month-Wise Timeline

Below is the complete month-wise exam schedule for all IBPS 2026-27 exams from August 2026 to January 2027:

Month & Year Exam Stage Dates
August 2026 IBPS PO/MT-XVI Prelims 22, 23 August 2026
August 2026 IBPS SO (CRP SPL-XVI) Prelims 29 August 2026
October 2026 IBPS PO/MT-XVI Mains 4 October 2026
October 2026 IBPS Clerk (CRP CSA-XVI) Prelims 10, 11 October 2026
November 2026 IBPS SO (CRP SPL-XVI) Mains 1 November 2026
November 2026 IBPS RRB Officer Scale I Prelims 21, 22 November 2026
December 2026 IBPS RRB Officer Scale I Mains 20 December 2026
December 2026 IBPS RRB Officer Scale II & III Single Exam 20 December 2026
December 2026 IBPS RRB Office Assistant Prelims 6, 12, 13 December 2026
December 2026 IBPS Clerk (CRP CSA-XVI) Mains 27 December 2026
January 2027 IBPS RRB Office Assistant Mains 30 January 2027

Who Can Apply for IBPS Exams 2026?

Candidates planning to appear for IBPS recruitment exams should carefully review the required age range, educational background, and nationality conditions before submitting the application form. Different posts have separate qualification requirements, especially for specialist and regional rural bank vacancies.

Recruitment Exam Required Age Range Minimum Qualification Citizenship Requirement
IBPS PO 2026 20 to 30 years Bachelor’s degree from a recognized university Indian citizen or eligible under IBPS guidelines
IBPS Clerk 2026 20 to 28 years Graduation in any stream
IBPS SO 2026 20 to 30 years Degree/Postgraduate qualification in the concerned field such as IT, Law, HR, Agriculture, or Marketing
IBPS RRB Office Assistant 2026 18 to 28 years Graduation from a recognized university
IBPS RRB Officer Scale I 2026 18 to 30 years Bachelor’s degree in any discipline

What is the IBPS Calendar 2026?

The IBPS Calendar 2026 is not just a list of exam dates it acts as a structured guide for candidates preparing for multiple banking exams conducted by the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection.

  • Covers the complete schedule of major exams like PO, Clerk, SO, and RRB in a single document
  • Provides clarity on key stages such as notifications, application timelines, prelims, mains, and interviews
  • Helps aspirants streamline their study plan based on exam sequence and gaps between exams
  • Reduces chances of missing deadlines or overlapping preparation for different exams
  • Allows better planning of mock tests, revision cycles, and performance analysis throughout the year
  • Acts as a long-term preparation tracker to maintain consistency and discipline

Tentative IBPS Recruitment Notification Schedule 2026

Candidates waiting for upcoming IBPS recruitment announcements can expect the official advertisements to be published a few weeks before the registration process begins. As per the usual recruitment cycle followed by IBPS, notifications are commonly issued well ahead of the preliminary examinations, giving aspirants enough time to complete applications and begin focused preparation.

Exam Expected Notification
IBPS PO June 2026
IBPS SO June 2026
IBPS Clerk August 2026
IBPS RRB September 2026

IBPS Registration Process 2026

The IBPS registration process for 2026 recruitment exams is expected to begin a few months before the respective preliminary examinations. The application process will be conducted entirely in online mode through the official IBPS website.

Important Registration Guidelines Released by IBPS 

  • Registration will be conducted in online mode only.
  • A single registration will be applicable for both Preliminary and Main examinations wherever applicable.
  • Candidates must upload a recent passport-size colour photograph.
  • Signatures should be clearly visible and must not be in capital letters.
  • Applicants will also be required to upload a live photograph using a webcam or mobile device during registration.

Documents Required During Registration

Document Size Requirement
Photograph 20 KB – 50 KB
Signature 10 KB – 20 KB
Thumb Impression 20 KB – 50 KB
Handwritten Declaration 50 KB – 100 KB

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How to Download the IBPS Exam Calendar 2026 PDF?

The IBPS Exam Calendar helps aspirants plan their preparation in advance for PO, Clerk, SO, and RRB exams. Candidates can easily download the IBPS Exam Calendar 2026 from the official IBPS website by following these simple steps:

  • Visit the official website of IBPS at www.ibps.in.
  • On the homepage, check the “Recent Updates” section and click on the IBPS Calendar 2026–27 link.
  • The calendar PDF will open on your screen.
  • Scroll through the PDF to check the Prelims and Mains exam dates for various IBPS exams.
  • Download and save the PDF for future reference.

Which IBPS Exam Should You Prioritize in 2026?

The IBPS exam sequence allows candidates to prepare strategically because the syllabus of PO, Clerk, SO, and RRB examinations overlaps significantly.

  • IBPS PO: Best choice for candidates aiming for officer-level positions and faster career growth.
  • IBPS SO: Ideal for professionals from IT, Law, HR, Agriculture, and Marketing backgrounds.
  • IBPS Clerk: Suitable for candidates seeking stable banking jobs with a comparatively easier selection process.
  • IBPS RRB: Recommended for aspirants targeting regional postings and multiple recruitment opportunities.

Why the Exam Order Matters

  • PO preparation covers a major portion of Clerk and RRB syllabi.
  • Candidates can reuse preparation across multiple exams.
  • Better time management and revision planning.
  • Higher chances of qualifying multiple recruitment processes in the same year.

List of 11 Participating PSBs

The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) conducts recruitment exams for various Public Sector Banks (PSBs) across India. Every year, these participating banks recruit candidates for posts like Probationary Officer (PO), Clerk, and Specialist Officer (SO) through the IBPS selection process.

  • Bank of Baroda
  • Bank of India
  • Bank of Maharashtra
  • Canara Bank
  • Central Bank of India
  • Indian Bank
  • Indian Overseas Bank
  • Punjab National Bank
  • Punjab & Sind Bank
  • UCO Bank
  • Union Bank of India

How to Prepare According to the IBPS Calendar 2026?

The release of the IBPS Calendar 2026-27 is your signal to stop guessing and start planning. With PO, SO, Clerk, and RRB exams spread across different months, aspirants can now prepare strategically instead of rushing at the last minute.

  • June-July: Build Your BaseFocus on completing the syllabus, strengthening weak areas, and building a strong foundation in Quant, Reasoning, English, and General Awareness.
  • August–September: PO & SO FocusWith IBPS PO and SO exams scheduled in August, shift your attention to mock tests, revision, and speed-building. This is the time to turn preparation into performance.
  • October–November: Clerk & RRB PreparationAfter PO and SO, gear up for IBPS Clerk and RRB exams. Since the syllabus overlaps significantly, candidates can target multiple exams with a smart revision strategy.
  • December–January: Mains Mode OnThe final phase of the IBPS exam cycle should be dedicated to Mains-level preparation, Current Affairs revision, and improving accuracy through regular mock tests.

Can You Prepare for IBPS PO, Clerk, SO, and RRB Exams Together?

Yes, candidates can prepare for multiple IBPS examinations simultaneously because a significant portion of the syllabus overlaps across IBPS PO, Clerk, and RRB recruitments. This makes it possible to target more than one examination with a single preparation strategy. The core subjects tested in these examinations remain largely similar, including:

  • Quantitative Aptitude
  • Reasoning Ability
  • English Language
  • General Awareness and Banking Awareness
  • Computer Knowledge (where applicable)

Key Points

  • Candidates preparing for IBPS PO automatically cover a major part of the syllabus required for IBPS Clerk and RRB examinations. As a result, after completing the PO examination, aspirants can focus on exam-specific practice, sectional mock tests, and revision to prepare for subsequent recruitment stages.
  • For candidates applying for IBPS SO, the Professional Knowledge section requires additional subject-specific preparation depending on the post. However, the preliminary examination pattern shares common sections with other IBPS recruitments, making simultaneous preparation manageable.
  • Since the IBPS Calendar 2026-27 schedules PO, SO, Clerk, and RRB examinations across different months, aspirants have sufficient time to revise and adapt their preparation strategy for each examination. A well-planned study schedule can help candidates maximize their opportunities and compete for multiple banking vacancies in a single recruitment cycle.

Candidates who align their preparation with the IBPS Calendar 2026 will have a clear advantage over those who prepare without a structured plan.

Related Posts
IBPS PO Syllabus IBPS RRB Syllabus
IBPS PO Salary IBPS RRB Previous Year Papers
IBPS PO Previous Year Paper IBPS RRB Clerk Salary
IBPS PO Cut Off IBPS RRB Clerk Cut Off
IBPS Clerk Previous Year Paper IBPS Clerk Syllabus
IBPS Clerk Salary

RBI Assistant Mains Expected Cut Off 2026, Check State-Wise Cut Off Marks

The RBI Assistant Mains 2026 examination has concluded successfully, and candidates are now looking for the expected cut-off announcement. Based on the overall feedback received from candidates across various shifts, the exam was of moderate difficulty level, with General Awareness emerging as the deciding section for many aspirants.

RBI Assistant Mains Expected Cut Off 2026

While the official cut-off be released by the Reserve Bank of India along with the final result, candidates can get an idea of their selection chances through the Previous cut-off Trend. The expected cut-offs have been prepared after analyzing previous recruitment trends, competition levels, and the overall RBI Assistant Mains Exam Analysis 2026

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RBI Assistant Mains Expected Cut Off 2026 (General Category)

RBI Office Expected Cut Off 2026
Ahmedabad 114 – 118
Bengaluru 109 – 113
Bhopal 119 – 123
Bhubaneswar 123 – 127
Chandigarh 125 – 129
Chennai 119 – 123
Guwahati 110 – 114
Hyderabad 122 – 126
Jaipur 122 – 126
Jammu 114 – 118
Kanpur & Lucknow 118 – 122
Kolkata 117 – 121
Mumbai 112 – 116
Nagpur 114 – 118
New Delhi 120 – 124
Patna 121 – 125
Thiruvananthapuram & Kochi 116 – 120

 

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IIFCL AGM Recruitment 2026, Last Date To Apply by 8 June

IIFCL AGM Recruitment 2026 presents a valuable opportunity for experienced professionals seeking a leadership role in the financial sector. With only 9 Assistant General Manager (Grade C) vacancies available and an annual salary package of around ₹42.91 lakh, the recruitment has attracted significant attention from banking and finance professionals. As today, 8 June 2026 is the last date to apply, eligible candidates should complete the application process before the deadline.

IIFCL AGM Recruitment 2026

India Infrastructure Finance Company Limited (IIFCL), a government-owned infrastructure financing institution, is conducting recruitment for Assistant General Manager positions across specialized domains including Risk Management, Information Technology, CISO, Forex, and Project Finance. Selected candidates will get the opportunity to work on large-scale infrastructure financing projects, contribute to strategic financial operations, and build a long-term career in one of India’s premier financial institutions. This recruitment drive is aimed at professionals with relevant experience and expertise in their respective fields.

IIFCL AGM Recruitment 2026 Overview

The organization is looking for skilled and experienced candidates who can contribute to areas related to finance, technology, risk, and infrastructure development. Candidates can check the important highlights related to IIFCL Assistant General Manager Recruitment 2026 below.

Particulars Details
Organization India Infrastructure Finance Company Limited
Recruitment Name IIFCL AGM Recruitment 2026
Post Name Assistant General Manager (Grade C)
Total Vacancies 9
Advertisement Number IIFCL/HCMD/2026/06
Application Mode Offline
Job Type Regular Basis
Selection Process Interview, Psychometric Assessment, Technical Assessment & Behavioural Assessment
Job Location Across India
Salary / Pay Scale ₹77,950 – ₹1,16,050
Approx. CTC ₹42.91 Lakh
Maximum Age Limit 45 Years
Required Experience Minimum 12 Years
Probation Period 1 Year (Extendable up to 2 Years)
Streams Available Risk Management, IT, CISO, Hedging/Forex, Project Finance
Last Date to Apply 08 June 2026
Official Website IIFCL Official Website

IIFCL AGM Notification 2026

The notification contains complete details regarding eligibility criteria, educational qualification, experience requirement, salary structure, selection process, application format, and important instructions for candidates. The recruitment is being conducted on a regular basis for experienced professionals seeking opportunities in the infrastructure finance sector.

IIFCL AGM Notification 2026: Download PDF

IIFCL AGM Recruitment 2026 Important Dates

Candidates should carefully note the important dates related to the recruitment process.

  • Notification Release Date: 08 May 2026
  • Last Date for Receipt of Application: 08 June 2026

IIFCL AGM Vacancy 2026

A total of 9 vacancies have been announced for Assistant General Manager posts across different streams.

Category Wise Vacancies
Category Vacancies
UR 6
OBC 2
EWS 1
Total 9

 

Stream-Wise Vacancies
Stream Vacancies
Risk Management 2
Information Technology 2
CISO 1
Hedging/Forex 1
Project Finance/ Sustainability Finance/ Credit Monitoring/ Credit Strategy Planning 3

How to Apply for IIFCL AGM Recruitment 2026

The application process for IIFCL AGM Recruitment 2026 is completely offline. Eligible candidates are required to download the prescribed application form, fill in all the required details carefully, and send the duly completed form along with the necessary documents to the designated address before the last date. For the convenience of candidates, the direct link to download the offline application form has been provided below.

IIFCL AGM Application Form 2026: Download Application Form

Application Sending Address

Head of Department (HoD)
Human Capital Management Department (HCMD)
India Infrastructure Finance Company Limited
5th Floor, Plate A & B, Office Block 2, NBCC Tower,
East Kidwai Nagar, New Delhi – 110023

The envelope should clearly mention:

“APPLICATION FOR THE POST OF ASSISTANT GENERAL MANAGER (GRADE ‘C’)”

Documents Required for IIFCL AGM Recruitment

Candidates must attach multiple documents along with the application form.

  • Important Documents
  • Educational Certificates
  • Experience Certificates
  • Date of Birth Proof
  • Identity Proof
  • Category Certificate
  • PwBD Certificate (if applicable)
  • NOC from Employer
  • CV/Resume
  • Address Proof
  • Recent Passport Size Photograph

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IIFCL AGM Eligibility Criteria 2026

Candidates applying for the recruitment must fulfil the educational qualification, age limit, and experience requirements mentioned in the official notification.

IIFCL AGM Educational Qualification & Experience 2026

Post/Stream Educational Qualification Experience Required
Risk Management CA, CMA, MBA, BE/B.Tech, or PG in Mathematics, Statistics, Economics, Commerce, or Business Administration. FRM/PRM/CFA certifications preferred. Minimum 12 years of experience, including 7 years in Risk, Credit, Treasury, Forex, or Banking-related fields.
Information Technology (IT) BE/B.Tech, MCA, M.Sc, or M.Tech in CS, IT, Electronics, or related fields. Technical certifications preferred. Minimum 12 years of experience, including 7 years in Banking IT, Cyber Security, Payment Systems, or IT Management.
CISO BE/B.Tech, MCA, M.Sc, or M.Tech in CS/IT/Electronics with CISSP, CISA, CISM, or similar certifications. Minimum 12 years of experience, including 7 years in Cyber Security or Information Security roles.
Hedging/Forex CA, CMA, or MBA with CFA/FRM qualification. Minimum 12 years of experience, including 7 years in Treasury, Forex, Investment, or Derivatives.
Project Finance / Sustainability Finance / Credit Monitoring / Credit Strategy Planning CA, CMA, MBA (Finance), BE/B.Tech, or PG in Finance, Management, Economics, Commerce, etc. Minimum 12 years of experience, including 7 years in Project Finance, Credit Appraisal, Credit Monitoring, or Sustainability Finance.
Environment & Social Safeguard Engineering Degree or PG Degree/Diploma in Environmental Management, Climate Science, Social Work, or related fields. Minimum 12 years of experience, including 7 years in Environmental & Social Assessment or Sustainability-related work.

Age Limit

The upper age limit has been specified in the official notification.

Maximum Age: 45 Years

Age Relaxation

  • SC/ST: 5 Years
  • OBC (NCL): 3 Years
  • PwBD: 10–15 Years
  • Ex-Servicemen: 5 Years

IIFCL AGM Selection Process 2026

The selection process for Assistant General Manager (Grade C) posts will be conducted through multiple assessment stages to evaluate the candidate’s technical knowledge, professional experience, communication skills, and overall suitability for the role.

  • Shortlisting of Applications – Applications will be screened based on eligibility, qualification, and relevant work experience.
  • Interview – Shortlisted candidates will be called for a personal interview to assess domain expertise and professional understanding.
  • Psychometric Assessment – Conducted to evaluate personality traits, decision-making ability, and workplace behaviour.
  • Technical Assessment – Candidates’ subject knowledge and technical skills related to their respective stream will be tested.
  • Behavioural Assessment – Used to assess leadership qualities, communication skills, and professional attitude.

IIFCL AGM Probation Period and Posting 2026

Selected candidates will be placed on a probation period of 1 year, which may be extended up to 2 years depending on the performance and requirements of IIFCL.

Candidates can be posted or transferred to any IIFCL office, department, or subsidiary across India or abroad as per organizational needs. Therefore, applicants should be willing to work at any location assigned by IIFCL.

IIFCL AGM Salary 2026

Selected candidates will receive a salary under the Grade C officer scale, along with multiple allowances and benefits.

  • Starting Basic Pay: ₹77,950
  • Pay Scale: ₹77,950 – ₹1,16,050
  • Approximate CTC: ₹42.91 Lakh

IIFCL AGM Job Profile 2026

Candidates selected as Assistant General Managers (Grade C) in IIFCL will handle key responsibilities related to infrastructure finance, risk management, technology, and strategic operations. The role involves working on large-scale financial and development projects across various specialized departments.

Key Responsibilities

  • Handling project finance and credit appraisal activities
  • Managing risk assessment, treasury, and forex operations
  • Supervising IT systems and cyber security functions
  • Monitoring sustainability and infrastructure finance projects
  • Ensuring regulatory compliance and policy implementation
  • Preparing reports and coordinating with stakeholders

The post offers leadership responsibilities, career growth opportunities, and exposure to major infrastructure financing projects in India.

Bank of Baroda Apprentice Recruitment 2026, Last Date To Apply

Bank of Baroda Apprentice Recruitment 2026 presents a major opportunity for graduates aspiring to build a career in the banking sector. The bank has announced 5,000 Apprentice vacancies across various regions of the country. As today, June 8, 2026, is the last date to apply, interested candidates should complete their application process without delay. The apprenticeship program offers valuable exposure to banking operations and can also support preparation for future banking examinations and career opportunities.

Bank of Baroda Apprentice Notification 2026 Out

The apprenticeship training will be conducted for one year, during which selected candidates will receive a monthly stipend of ₹15,000 along with exposure to real banking operations, customer handling, and branch-level activities. The process includes online registration, application through the apprenticeship route, and later BFSI SSC-related steps for final submission.

Particulars Details
Organization Bank of Baroda
Post Name Apprentice
Total Vacancies 5000
Advertisement No. BOB/HRM/APPRENTICE/ADVT/2026/01
Application Start Date 19 May 2026
Last Date to Apply 08 June 2026
Training Duration 12 Months
Stipend ₹15,000 per month
Selection Process Online Exam + Document Verification + Local Language Test
Mode of Application Online
Official Mode NATS/NAPS + BFSI SSC

Bank of Baroda Apprentice Vacancy 2026 (State Wise)

A total of 5000 apprenticeship seats have been announced across India. Some major states with high vacancies are:

State/UT Total Vacancies
Andaman & Nicobar Islands 1
Andhra Pradesh 188
Arunachal Pradesh 4
Assam 29
Bihar 179
Chandigarh 4
Chhattisgarh 122
Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu 7
Delhi 91
Goa 29
Gujarat 960
Haryana 84
Himachal Pradesh 8
Jammu & Kashmir 2
Jharkhand 64
Karnataka 483
Kerala 111
Ladakh 2
Madhya Pradesh 136
Maharashtra 580
Manipur 1
Meghalaya 4
Mizoram 2
Nagaland 3
Odisha 92
Puducherry 4
Punjab 78
Rajasthan 412
Sikkim 1
Tamil Nadu 199
Telangana 83
Tripura 3
Uttar Pradesh 764
Uttarakhand 76
West Bengal 194
Total 5000

The number of vacancies may change depending on the bank’s requirements.

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Eligibility Criteria for BOB Apprentice

Candidates must meet the eligibility conditions as of 01 May 2026.

Educational Qualification

  • Graduation in any discipline from a recognized university.
  • Equivalent qualifications approved by the Central Government are also accepted.
  • NATS Registered Candidates

Age limit: 20 to 28 years.

  • Graduation must be completed on or after 02 May 2022.
  • Category-wise age relaxation is applicable as per rules.

NAPS Registered Candidates

  • Candidates must be below 34 years of age.
  • Applicants above 34 years are not eligible.

Portal Selection

  • Choose NATS if you are a recent graduate within the 20–28 years age limit.
  • Choose NAPS if you are above 28 years but below 34 years.
  • Candidates can apply through only one portal — either NATS or NAPS.

Age relaxation is applicable as per the Government rules:

Category Relaxation
SC/ST 5 Years
OBC 3 Years
PwBD (UR/EWS) 10 Years
PwBD (OBC) 13 Years
PwBD (SC/ST) 15 Years

Local Language Requirement

Candidates applying for a particular state must have proficiency in the local language of that state. Reading, writing, speaking, and understanding abilities are mandatory. Candidates who studied the local language in Class 10th or 12th may be exempted from the language test.

Important Eligibility Conditions

Candidates should carefully note the following conditions before applying:

  • The candidate should not have completed apprenticeship training earlier in any organization.
  • The candidate should not currently be pursuing apprenticeship training elsewhere.
  • Candidates having one year or more of work experience after graduation are not eligible.
  • Only one state/UT can be selected while applying.

How to Apply for BOB Apprentice?

Candidates must follow the application process below carefully:

Step 1: Register on Government Apprenticeship Portals

Candidates must first register themselves on:

  • NATS Portal
  • NAPS Portal

Step 2: Apply for Bank of Baroda Apprenticeship

After registration, candidates need to search for “Bank of Baroda” and apply for the apprenticeship opportunity on the respective portals.

Step 3: Complete the BFSI SSC Application Form

Eligible candidates will receive an email from BFSI SSC to:

  • Fill the final application form
  • Select preferred training locations
  • Upload required details
  • Pay application fees

Application Fees

Category Fees
SC/ST/PwBD ₹200 + GST
General/OBC/EWS Male ₹800 + GST
General/OBC/EWS Female/Transgender ₹600 + GSTw

Bank Mahapack 2026

Documents Required to Apply

Candidates should keep the following documents ready before applying:

  • Aadhaar Card
  • PAN Card
  • Passport Size Photograph
  • Signature
  • 10th & 12th Marksheet
  • Graduation Certificate/Marksheet
  • Bank Passbook/Cheque
  • Category Certificate (if applicable)

Selection Process

Candidates must qualify at each stage to proceed further in the recruitment process. The selection process for Bank of Baroda Apprentice Recruitment 2026 includes the following stages:

  1. Online Examination
  2. Document Verification
  3. Local Language Test

Exam Pattern of BOB Apprentice

The online examination will consist of objective-type questions from multiple sections. The complete exam pattern is given below:

Section Questions Marks
General/Financial Awareness 25 25
Quantitative & Reasoning Aptitude 25 25
Computer Knowledge 25 25
General English 25 25
Total 100 100

Important Points

  • Duration: 60 Minutes
  • No Negative Marking
  • The exam will be remotely proctored
  • Candidates can appear from home using a laptop/mobile/tablet with a camera and a microphone

Stipend During Training

Selected candidates will receive a monthly stipend of: ₹15,000 Per Month. The apprenticeship duration will be for one year, and apprentices will not be eligible for additional allowances or employee benefits.

Final Selection Criteria for Bank of Baroda Apprentice Recruitment 2026

Candidates must qualify at each stage of the recruitment process to be considered for final engagement as an apprentice. The final selection will be based on:

  • Qualifying the Online Examination conducted by the bank.
  • Successful completion of Document Verification.
  • Qualifying the Local Language Proficiency Test for the state/UT applied for (if applicable).
  • Meeting all eligibility criteria prescribed in the official notification.
  • Being declared medically fit as per Bank of Baroda’s requirements.
  • Submission of all required documents in the prescribed format.
  • Verification of educational qualifications, age, category certificates, and other eligibility documents.

Note: As Per the Official Notification meet qualification in the online examination does not guarantee selection. The final engagement of apprentices will be subject to successful completion of all stages and fulfillment of the bank’s eligibility conditions.

World Brain Tumour Day 2026: Date, Theme, Importance, and Awareness Activities

World Brain Tumour Day 2026 will be observed on 8 June 2026 (Monday) to raise awareness about brain tumours, promote early diagnosis, support patients and caregivers, and encourage research into better treatment options. The day serves as a reminder of the challenges faced by individuals living with brain tumours and highlights the importance of timely medical intervention.

What is World Brain Tumour Day?

World Brain Tumour Day is observed every year on 8 June. It was established in 2000 by the German Brain Tumor Association, also known as Deutsche Hirntumorhilfe e.V., in Leipzig, Germany. Since then, the day has become a global platform for spreading awareness about brain tumours, their symptoms, available treatments, and the need for continued medical research.

World Brain Tumour Day 2026: Key Facts

Aspect Details
Date 8 June 2026 (Monday)
Founded By German Brain Tumor Association
Year Started 2000
Motto “Knowledge Creates Future”
Theme for 2026 A Closer Look
Awareness Symbol Gray Ribbon
Purpose Promote awareness, early diagnosis, patient support, and research
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World Brain Tumour Day 2026 Theme

The theme for World Brain Tumour Day 2026 is “A Closer Look.” The theme highlights the importance of paying closer attention to the early signs and symptoms of brain tumours, encouraging timely diagnosis and treatment. It also emphasizes the need for greater awareness, improved access to healthcare, stronger patient support systems, and continued investment in brain tumour research.

Through this theme, healthcare organizations, researchers, patients, and caregivers aim to promote informed decision-making and encourage people to seek medical attention when experiencing persistent neurological symptoms. The message behind “A Closer Look” is simple but powerful: early awareness and timely action can save lives and improve treatment outcomes.

Also Read : Important Days in June 2026

Why is World Brain Tumour Day Important?

Brain tumours can affect people of all ages, including children and older adults. While some tumours are benign (non-cancerous), others can be malignant and life-threatening. Early detection often improves treatment outcomes and quality of life.

Medical experts emphasize that recognizing warning signs and seeking timely medical attention can make a significant difference in diagnosis and treatment planning.

Common Symptoms of Brain Tumours

The symptoms of a brain tumour can vary depending on its location and size. Some common warning signs include:

  • Persistent headaches, especially those that worsen in the morning
  • First-time seizures in adults
  • Vision problems or blurred vision
  • Speech difficulties
  • Memory loss and confusion
  • Balance and coordination issues
  • Weakness or numbness on one side of the body
  • Changes in personality or behavior

Brain Tumours: Understanding the Impact

Brain tumours remain a serious health concern worldwide. One of the most common malignant primary brain tumours in adults is glioblastoma, which continues to present significant treatment challenges. Advances in medical technology, targeted therapies, and research are helping improve outcomes, but continued awareness and funding remain essential.

How to Observe World Brain Tumour Day 2026

People across the world can participate in awareness activities to support patients and promote education about brain health.

  • Wear the Gray Ribbon : The gray ribbon is the international symbol of brain tumour awareness. Wearing it helps spread awareness and show solidarity with patients and their families.
  • Participate in Community Events : Many organizations host awareness walks, charity fundraisers, seminars, and support events to educate the public and raise funds for research.
  • Spread Awareness Online : Use social media platforms to share facts, educational resources, patient stories, and awareness messages to reach a larger audience.
  • Support Brain Tumour Organizations : Volunteering or donating to organizations involved in brain tumour research and patient support can make a meaningful impact.

Bank Mahapack 2026

Tips to Reduce Health Risks

While not all brain tumours can be prevented, adopting healthy lifestyle practices may help reduce exposure to certain risk factors.

  • Avoid smoking and tobacco products
  • Limit exposure to harmful chemicals and toxins
  • Follow workplace safety guidelines
  • Protect against head injuries
  • Maintain a healthy lifestyle with regular exercise
  • Manage stress through relaxation techniques such as yoga and meditation
  • Seek medical advice when unusual neurological symptoms occur

Daily Current Affairs Quiz 8th June 2026 for Banking & Competitive Exams

Daily Current Affairs: 8 June, 2026

Q1. The theme designated for World Food Safety Day 2026 is “__________,” which highlights how data regarding illness and lost lives can effectively guide global action toward focused, cost-effective solutions.

(a) Food Safety, Prepare for the Unexpected

(b) Safe Food Now for a Healthy Tomorrow

(c) From Burden to Solutions – Safe Food Everywhere

(d) Safer Food, Better Health

(e) Food Standards Save Lives

Answer: c

Solution:

  • World Food Safety Day is observed every year on 7 June to raise awareness about the importance of safe food and to promote actions that help prevent, detect, and manage foodborne risks.
  • The day was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 2018 to draw global attention to public health threats associated with unsafe food.
  • World Food Safety Day is jointly facilitated by the World Health Organization and the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations.
  • The observance aims to strengthen food safety systems and contribute to food security, public health, economic prosperity, agriculture, trade, tourism, and sustainable development.
  • The theme of World Food Safety Day 2026 is: “From burden to solutions – safe food everywhere.”
  • The 2026 theme emphasizes how data on foodborne illnesses, disease burden, and mortality can be used to develop targeted, effective, and cost-efficient solutions for improving food safety.

Q2. The legendary actor Salim Kumar, passed away at the age of 57, left behind an indelible legacy of around 350 films across a career spanning three decades. To which specific regional language movie industry did this National Award-winning actor primarily belong?

(a) Tamil

(b) Telugu

(c) Kannada

(d) Malayalam

(e) Tulu

Answer: d

Solution:

  • Renowned Malayalam actor and National Award recipient Salim Kumar passed away in Kochi on 6 June 2026 while undergoing treatment at a private hospital. He was 57 years old.
  • Salim Kumar began his career as a mimicry artist and gained popularity through television comedy shows before entering the Malayalam film industry.
  • He made his film debut in 1996 with Ishtamanu Nooruvattam, directed by Siddique Shameer.
  • Over a distinguished career spanning nearly three decades, he acted in approximately 350 films, becoming one of the most versatile performers in Malayalam cinema.
  • He achieved national recognition by winning the National Film Award for Best Actor in 2010 for his outstanding performance in Adaminte Makan Abu.
  • For the same film, he also received the Kerala State Film Award for Best Actor.
  • He won the Kerala State Film Award for Best Supporting Actor for Achanurangatha Veedu.
  • Salim Kumar was also honoured with the Kerala State Film Award for Best Comedian for his performance in Ayalum Njanum Thammil.

Q3. In June 2026, a major cabinet reshuffle and executive transition was initiated in South Korea, marking a historic milestone for gender representation in the nation’s apex governance. Who was officially nominated to serve as the country’s next Prime Minister?

(a) Park Geun-hye

(b) Han Seong-sook

(c) Han Myeong-sook

(d) Lee Jae Myung

(e) Kang Kyung-wha

Answer: c

Solution:

  • In June 2026, Lee Jae Myung, President of South Korea, nominated Han Seong-sook as the country’s next Prime Minister.
  • Han Seong-sook is currently serving as the Minister for Small and Medium-sized Enterprises (SMEs).
  • The nomination reflects President Lee’s efforts to strengthen his administration with experienced leadership in economic and business-related sectors.
  • The appointment is subject to approval by the National Assembly of South Korea.
  • If confirmed, Han Seong-sook would become the first female Prime Minister under the Lee Jae Myung administration.
  • She would also become only the second woman in South Korea’s history to hold the office of Prime Minister.
  • The first woman to serve as South Korea’s Prime Minister was Han Myeong-sook, who held the position from 2006 to 2007.

Q4. The ‘e-Jagriti’ platform, which recently secured the Silver Award at the National Awards for e-Governance (NAeG) 2026, functions as an AI-enabled portal under the administrative jurisdiction of which specific body?

(a) Department of Justice

(b) Department of Consumer Affairs

(c) Department of Commerce

(d) Department of Legal Affairs

(e) Department of Economic Affairs

Answer: b

Solution:

  • The e-Jagriti platform of the Department of Consumer Affairs has been awarded the Silver Award at the National Awards for e-Governance 2026.
  • The award was conferred under Category I – Government Process Re-engineering by Use of Technology for Digital Transformation.
  • The National Awards for e-Governance are presented by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances to recognize excellence in digital governance and public service delivery.
  • The recognition came after a rigorous evaluation process involving 341 nominations from Central Ministries, Departments, and State Governments.
  • The award highlights e-Jagriti’s contribution to transforming consumer grievance redressal through technology-enabled, citizen-centric governance.
  • Launched on 1 January 2025, e-Jagriti integrates four legacy consumer dispute resolution platforms:
    • OCMS (Online Case Monitoring System)
    • e-Daakhil
    • NCDRC CMS
    • CONFONET
  • The platform functions as a single AI-enabled and paperless system, streamlining consumer complaint registration, case management, and dispute resolution.
  • Since its launch, e-Jagriti has facilitated the filing of more than 2.29 lakh consumer cases.
  • During the same period, over 2.07 lakh cases have been disposed of through the platform.
  • The platform has achieved an impressive disposal rate of 90.75%, significantly improving the efficiency of consumer dispute resolution mechanisms.
  • e-Jagriti enables consumers to access justice seamlessly from anywhere in India and even from abroad through a fully digital interface.

Q5. Germany’s Alexander Zverev secured his maiden Grand Slam singles title at the Men’s French Open 2026. Whom did he defeat in a thrilling five-set final?

(a) Jannik Sinner

(b) Carlos Alcaraz

(c) Flavio Cobolli

(d) Daniil Medvedev

(e) Matteo Berrettini

Answer: c

Solution:

  • Alexander Zverev won his maiden Grand Slam title by capturing the French Open 2026 Men’s Singles Championship at Roland Garros.
  • In a thrilling final, the German star defeated Flavio Cobolli of Italy in a five-set contest.
  • Zverev secured victory with a scoreline of 6-1, 4-6, 6-4, 6-7, 6-1 in a match lasting 4 hours and 20 minutes on Court Philippe-Chatrier.
  • At the age of 29, Zverev became the first German man to win the French Open since Henner Henkel in 1937.
  • He also became the first German man to win a Grand Slam singles title since Boris Becker’s Australian Open victory in 1996.

GA Questions Asked In RBI Assistant Mains Exam 2026

The RBI Assistant Mains Exam 2026 was conducted on 07 June 2026, and the General Awareness (GA) section once again played a crucial role in determining candidates’ overall performance. Many aspirants found the section scoring because a large number of questions were asked from current affairs, banking awareness, RBI-related updates, reports, appointments, and government schemes.

GA Questions Asked In RBI Assistant Mains Exam 2026

Based on the feedback received from candidates, the General Awareness section was largely current affairs-oriented, with questions covering the last six to eight months. RBI notifications, monetary policy updates, banking terms, important committees, reports, awards, and international events also received considerable attention. The memory-based questions shared below can help future aspirants understand the type of GA questions asked in RBI Assistant Mains examinations.

List of GA Questions Asked in RBI Assistant Mains 2026

The following memory-based questions were reported by candidates after the examination.

Q1. GT Team Captain 2026?

Q2. Balen Shah is the Mayor of which country’s capital city?

Q3. What is the maturity period of Public Provident Fund (PPF)?

Q4. Where is the headquarters of the World Bank Group located?

Q5. Bharat Taxi is related to which sector?

Q6. What is India’s rank in the world by Nominal GDP?

Q7. What does the letter “L” stand for in the PLI Scheme?

Q8. Paris is the capital of which country?

Q9. The first edition of Tribal Sports was hosted in which state?

Q10. Under the SHG ₹1 Lakh Income Criteria, income is considered for how many years?

Q11. Who was the Prime Minister of India during the Kargil War in 1999?

Q12. In which year did Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan become the 2nd President of India?

Q13. Where is the National Zoological Park located?

Q14. Tawang is located in which Indian state?

Q15. Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park is situated in which state?

Q16. How many Lok Sabha constituencies were there in the 2024 General Elections?

Q17. Which of the following is not included in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution: Electricity, Agriculture, or Education?

Q18. Who is the author of the book “Das Capital”?

Q19. For what purpose was the SWAYAM Portal launched?

Q20. Who holds the record for the highest individual score in Women’s ODI cricket?

Q21. Who is the Managing Director and CEO of the National Stock Exchange (NSE)?

Q22. NCSE is related to which field?

Q23. Who is the current Chairperson of SEBI?

Q24. Which organization regulates the pension sector in India?

Q25. The “Connectivity to All Socio-Economic Zones” initiative is associated with which national programme?

Q26. Pokkali Rice, which has received a GI Tag, belongs to which state?

Q27. Which Indian city is popularly known as the “Brass City”?

Q28. Which film won the Best Feature Film award at the 71st National Film Awards?

Q29. Which of the following is not a Classical Language of India?

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Difficulty Level of GA Section

Most candidates considered the GA section moderate because many questions came from recent current affairs and banking awareness updates.

  • Current affairs dominated the section.
  • Banking awareness questions were straightforward.
  • RBI-related questions had good weightage.
  • Monthly current affairs coverage was beneficial.
  • Candidates who revised banking capsules had an advantage.
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Important Sources for Future RBI Assistant Aspirants

Candidates preparing for future RBI Assistant Mains examinations should focus on reliable current affairs and banking awareness resources.

  • Monthly Current Affairs PDFs
  • RBI Circular Updates
  • RBI Monetary Policy Statements
  • Banking Awareness Capsules
  • Economic Survey
  • Union Budget Highlights
  • Government Scheme Notes
Related Posts
RBI Assistant Syllabus RBI Assistant Previous year Paper
RBI Assistant Salary RBI Assistant Study Plan

RBI Assistant Mains Memory Based Paper 2026, Download PDFs

The RBI Assistant Mains Exam 2026 has been successfully conducted on 07 June 2026, and candidates across the country are now eager to review the memory-based questions asked in the examination. Memory-based papers provide valuable insights into the actual exam pattern, topic-wise weightage, question trends, and difficulty level. They also help future aspirants understand the nature of questions asked by the Reserve Bank of India in the Mains examination.

RBI Assistant Mains Memory Based Paper 2026

Based on feedback received from candidates who appeared for the examination, the RBI Assistant Mains 2026 paper featured questions from Reasoning Ability, Quantitative Aptitude, English Language, General Awareness, and Computer Knowledge. While the General Awareness section was largely based on current affairs and banking awareness, the Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude sections included a mix of moderate and challenging questions. The memory-based questions shared below are compiled from candidate responses and may be updated as more feedback becomes available.

RBI Assistant Mains Memory Based Paper 2026 Download PDF

Candidates who appeared for the RBI Assistant Mains Exam 2026 or those preparing for upcoming RBI examinations can download the RBI Assistant Mains Memory Based Paper PDF from the direct link provided below. The PDF contains memory-based questions covering all sections, including Reasoning Ability, Quantitative Aptitude, English Language, General Awareness, and Computer Knowledge.

Subject PDF Link
Quantitative Aptitude(Part A) Download PDF
Quantitative Aptitude(Part B) Download PDF
Reasoning Ability Download PDF
English Language Download PDF 

 

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Also Check, RBI Assistant Mains Exam Analysis 2026

Key Takeaways from RBI Assistant Mains 2026

The examination highlighted several important trends that future aspirants should note.

  • Current affairs dominated the GA section.
  • Banking awareness remained highly important.
  • Computer Knowledge was largely straightforward.
  • Quantitative Aptitude required speed and accuracy.
  • Reasoning Ability included multiple puzzle-based questions.
  • Regular mock test practice would have been beneficial.
  • RBI-related updates received considerable weightage.
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How Future Aspirants Should Prepare?

Candidates preparing for future RBI Assistant examinations can learn from the trends observed in the 2026 Mains examination.

  • Cover at least 6–8 months of current affairs.
  • Focus on RBI circulars and monetary policy updates.
  • Strengthen banking awareness concepts.
  • Practice puzzle-based reasoning daily.
  • Improve Data Interpretation skills.
  • Revise computer awareness topics regularly.
  • Attempt full-length mock tests consistently.
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RBI Assistant Salary RBI Assistant Study Plan

RBI Assistant Mains Exam Analysis 2026, Section-Wise Exam Review

The RBI Assistant Mains Exam 2026 was conducted on 07 June 2026 for candidates who successfully qualified in the preliminary examination. Thousands of aspirants appeared for the mains exam across various centres, aiming to secure a position as an Assistant in the Reserve Bank of India. The mains examination is considered the most important stage of the selection process as the marks obtained in this phase play a significant role in the final selection.

RBI Assistant Mains Exam Analysis 2026

The overall level of the RBI Assistant Mains Exam 2026 was reported to be Moderate by most candidates. While some sections were straightforward and scoring, others required strong conceptual understanding and time management. The General Awareness section played a decisive role in the examination due to its extensive coverage of current affairs and banking awareness topics. Reasoning and Numerical Ability contained a mix of easy and moderate questions, while English Language and Computer Knowledge remained comparatively manageable.

Sequence Of Exam: Reasoning Ability, English Language, Quantitative Aptitude, General Awareness, Computer Knowledge

What was the Difficulty Level of the RBI Assistant Mains Exam 2026

The overall difficulty level of the RBI Assistant Mains Exam 2026 was Moderate. General Awareness was considered one of the most important sections due to its weightage and extensive current affairs coverage.

Section Difficulty Level
Reasoning Ability Moderate
Quantitative Aptitude Moderate
English Language Moderate
General Awareness Moderate
Computer Knowledge Easy To Moderate
Overall Moderate

Section-Wise Analysis

The RBI Assistant Mains Exam 2026 featured a balanced mix of conceptual, factual, and application-based questions. Most candidates found the examination manageable with proper preparation and effective time management.

Reasoning Ability

Topics No. Of Questions
 Box Puzzle(6 Boxes + Variable) 5
Designation Based Puzzle(9 Persons) 5
Circular Seating Arrangement(6 Persons, All Facing Inside + Variable – Fruit) 5
Certain Number of Persons (North Facing + Variable) 5
Simple Inequality(Double Comma) 3
Blood Relation(Passage) 3
Direction(Passage) 3
Machine Input(Number Based) 5
Data Sufficiency(2 Statement Based) 4
Meaningful Word 1
Miscellaneous 1
Total 40
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Quantitative Aptitude

Topics No. Of Questions
Approximation 6
Wrong Number Series 6
Table DI 5
DI(Double Pie Chart) 5
Caselet DI 5
Q1 and Q2 4
Arithmetic 9
Total 40

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English Language

Topics  No. Of Questions
Reading Comprehension(Topic-Japan Companies Argument) 10
Reading Comprehension(Topic-Tech Based) 5
Parajumble(Topic-Terrorism; 1 Sentence Fixed) 5
Error Detection(Single Sentence) 4
Phrase Replacement 2
Column Based(3 Columns) 5
Word Usage(Misspelt Form) 4
Connectors 4
Single Paragraph Inference 1
Total 40

General Awareness

The General Awareness section focused heavily on current affairs, banking awareness, RBI-related developments, reports, indices, government schemes, and recent appointments.

  1. Olympics
  2. Nepal PM
  3. Avni Lekhara
  4. GT-IPL Captain
  5. PLI Scheme
  6. UNESCO World Book Capital
  7. NSE MD & CEO
  8. Khelo India Tribal Games
  9. SEBI Chairman
  10. GIFT City
  11. Rohtang Pass
  12. PPF Period

RBI Assistant Mains Exam Analysis 2026: Video Link

 

Related Posts
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RBI Assistant Salary RBI Assistant Study Plan

Daily Current Affairs Quiz 7th June 2026 for Banking & Competitive Exams

Daily Current Affairs: 07 June, 2026

Q1. The newly inaugurated Regional Meteorological Centre (RMC) at Jammu in June 2026 marks which milestone in the country’s IMD regional network expansion?

(a) Fifth RMC

(b) Sixth RMC

(c) Seventh RMC

(d) Eighth RMC

(e) Tenth RMC

Answer: c

Solution:

  • Union Minister for Science & Technology and Earth Sciences Dr. Jitendra Singh inaugurated the new Regional Meteorological Centre (RMC) at Jammu on 5 June 2026.
  • During the inauguration, the Minister announced that another Regional Meteorological Centre will soon be established in Lucknow, further strengthening India’s weather forecasting and meteorological infrastructure.
  • The Jammu facility has become India’s seventh Regional Meteorological Centre.
  • The centre will cater to the meteorological needs of Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, and Himachal Pradesh.
  • It will provide specialized weather forecasting services, climate-related information, and early warning systems tailored to the unique geographical and climatic conditions of the Himalayan region.

Q2. Who has been appointed as the new captain of the Indian Men’s T20I team for the tours of England and Ireland in June 2026?

(a) Hardik Pandya

(b) Shubman Gill

(c) Shreyas Iyer

(d) Tilak Varma

(e) Rishabh Pant

Answer: c

Solution:

  • The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) announced India’s 16-member T20 International squad for the upcoming tours of England and Ireland on 6 June 2026.
  • Shreyas Iyer has been appointed as the new captain of India’s T20I team, succeeding Suryakumar Yadav.
  • Tilak Varma has been named the vice-captain of the squad.
  • The selectors have included young batting sensation Vaibhav Sooryavanshi in the national T20I squad for the first time.
  • Vaibhav earned his maiden call-up following an outstanding IPL 2026 season, where he emerged as the tournament’s highest run-scorer.
  • Another young player, Prince Yadav, has also been included in the squad.

Q3. The 29th Edition of the India-US Army to Army Staff Talks (AAST) was hosted at which overseas location?

(a) New Delhi, India

(b) Hawaii, USA

(c) Washington D.C., USA

(d) Visakhapatnam, India

(e) California, USA

Answer: b

Solution:

  • The 29th Edition of the India–US Army to Army Staff Talks (AAST) was held in Hawaii, USA.
  • The talks were co-chaired by Lieutenant General Rajiv Ghai and Lieutenant General Joel Vowell.
  • The discussions focused on further strengthening bilateral defence cooperation between the armies of India and the United States.
  • Key areas of deliberation included enhancing military interoperability, expanding professional military exchanges, and deepening collaboration in support of shared strategic and security interests.
  • Both sides reviewed the growing scope of Army-to-Army engagements and explored opportunities for greater cooperation in training, operational coordination, and capacity building.
  • The talks reaffirmed the commitment of both countries to strengthening the India–US strategic partnership and advancing defence ties through sustained military engagement.
  • The meeting reflects the increasing importance of defence cooperation between India and the United States in promoting regional stability, security, and a free and open Indo-Pacific.

Q4. Indian Grandmaster R. Praggnanandhaa created history in June 2026 by becoming the first Indian chess player to win the prestigious Norway Chess title in Oslo. Which grandmaster did he defeat with the white pieces in the final round to secure the championship?

(a) Vincent Keymer (Germany)

(b) Magnus Carlsen (Norway)

(c) D. Gukesh (India)

(d) Wesley So (USA)

(e) Alireza Firouzja (France)

Answer: a

Solution:

  • Indian Grandmaster R. Praggnanandhaa created history by becoming the first Indian player to win the Norway Chess title, clinching the Norway Chess 2026 championship in Oslo.
  • Praggnanandhaa secured the prestigious title with a crucial victory over Vincent Keymer of Germany in the final round of the tournament.
  • By winning the tournament, Praggnanandhaa etched his name in Indian chess history as the first Indian champion of the event.

Q5. Indian cricketer KS Bharat, who recently announced his retirement from international cricket at the age of 32, holds the unique historical distinction in domestic sports governance of being the first wicketkeeper in Ranji Trophy history to score a triple century. Which state team did he represent primarily on the domestic circuit?

(a) Tamil Nadu

(b) Karnataka

(c) Andhra Pradesh

(d) Hyderabad

(e) Baroda

Answer: c

Solution:

  • Indian wicketkeeper-batter K. S. Bharat has announced his retirement from international cricket.
  • Bharat represented India in seven Test matches, making valuable contributions behind the stumps and with the bat.
  • His final appearance for India came against England Cricket Team at Visakhapatnam in February 2024.
  • During his international career, Bharat completed 19 dismissals as a wicketkeeper, showcasing his skills behind the wickets.
  • He was also a member of India’s playing XI in the ICC World Test Championship Final 2023 against Australia Cricket Team at The Oval in June 2023.
  • KS Bharat primarily represented the Andhra Pradesh cricket team on the domestic circuit.

Q6. In June 2026, the autonomous youth engagement platform ‘Mera Yuva Bharat’ (MY Bharat) achieved a Guinness World Records title for mass digital mobilization. Which specific government department exercises direct administrative control over this platform?

(a) Department of Higher Education

(b) Department of Youth Affairs

(c) Department of School Education and Literacy

(d) Department of Science and Technology

(e) Department of Social Justice and Empowerment

Answer: b

Solution:

  • In June 2026, Mera Yuva Bharat, the flagship youth engagement platform of the Department of Youth Affairs, earned a Guinness World Records title for achieving the highest participation in an online quiz within one week.
  • The record was achieved through the Viksit Bharat Young Leaders’ Dialogue Quiz, which witnessed an unprecedented response from young participants across the country.
  • A total of 390,812 participants successfully completed the full-length quiz during the official assessment period.
  • This achievement established a new Guinness World Record in the category of “Most Users to Take an Online Quiz in One Week.”

Q7. The Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI), which has been selected for the prestigious Gold Award at the National Awards for e-Governance 2026, functions as a core analytical mechanism under which Union Ministry?

(a) Ministry of Rural Development

(b) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

(c) Ministry of Panchayati Raj

(d) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

(e) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

Answer: c

Solution:

  • The Panchayat Advancement Index, a flagship data-driven governance initiative of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, has been selected for the Gold Award at the National Awards for e-Governance 2026.
  • The award has been conferred under Category VII – Digital Transformation through the Use of Data Analytics in Digital Platforms by Central Ministries, States and Union Territories.
  • The award will be presented during the 29th National Conference on e-Governance, scheduled to be held on 1–2 July 2026 in Jaipur.
  • The conference is being jointly organized by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances and the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, in association with the Government of Rajasthan.
  • The theme of the 29th National Conference on e-Governance is “Viksit Bharat 2047: AI-Enabled, Data-Driven and Secure Digital Governance.”
  • The theme reflects the Government’s commitment to leveraging artificial intelligence, data-driven decision-making, and robust cybersecurity frameworks to deliver efficient, secure, and citizen-centric public services.
  • The Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) serves as a comprehensive tool for measuring the progress and performance of Panchayati Raj Institutions through data-driven assessment and governance monitoring.
  • The National Awards for e-Governance are presented annually to recognize and promote excellence in the implementation of e-Governance initiatives across India.
  • In 2026, a total of 17 projects and initiatives have been selected for recognition across seven award categories.
  • The Gold Award includes a trophy, citation, and a cash incentive of ₹10 lakh, which can be utilized for further strengthening the initiative and enhancing public welfare outcomes.

Q8. The North Eastern Council (NEC) convened its 73rd Plenary Session under the chairmanship of Union Home Minister Shri Amit Shah in June 2026. In which city was this high-level regional planning assembly hosted?

(a) Guwahati, Assam

(b) Shillong, Meghalaya

(c) Imphal, Manipur

(d) Gangtok, Sikkim

(e) Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: b

Solution:

  • The 73rd Plenary Session of the North Eastern Council (NEC) was held on 4 June 2026 in Shillong.
  • The session was chaired by Amit Shah, who serves as the Chairman of the North Eastern Council.
  • The meeting reviewed developmental initiatives and discussed strategies for accelerating economic growth, infrastructure development, and regional cooperation in the North Eastern Region.
  • The North Eastern Council (NEC) is the apex regional planning body for the North Eastern Region and plays a key role in promoting coordinated development and cooperative federalism.
  • The Council was established under the North Eastern Council Act, 1971.
  • NEC functions as the nodal agency for the economic and social development of the North Eastern Region.
  • The Council covers all eight northeastern states:
    • Arunachal Pradesh
    • Assam
    • Manipur
    • Meghalaya
    • Mizoram
    • Nagaland
    • Sikkim
    • Tripura
  • Sikkim became the eighth member state of the Council through the NEC (Amendment) Act, 2002.

Composition of the North Eastern Council (NEC)

  • Ex-Officio Chairman: Union Home Minister.
  • Ex-Officio Vice-Chairman: Minister of State, Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER).
  • Members: Governors and Chief Ministers of the eight constituent states, along with three members nominated by the President of India.

Q9. According to the Provisional Estimates released by MoSPI, India’s Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at Constant Prices for the full financial year 2025-26 is estimated to attain which specific absolute volume?

(a) ₹299.89 lakh crore

(b) ₹318.07 lakh crore

(c) ₹323.12 lakh crore

(d) ₹346.36 lakh crore

(e) ₹294.91 lakh crore

Answer: c

Solution:

  • The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) released the Provisional Estimates (PE) of India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) for FY 2025–26 and the GDP estimates for the fourth quarter (January–March 2026).
  • These estimates are based on the new GDP series with base year 2022–23, introduced by MoSPI on 27 February 2026.
  • With the availability of Q4 data, the annual estimates for FY 2025–26 have been revised from the earlier advance estimates.

Annual GDP Estimates (FY 2025–26)

  • Real GDP (at Constant Prices) is estimated at ₹323.12 lakh crore in FY 2025–26, compared to ₹299.89 lakh crore in FY 2024–25.
  • India’s real GDP growth rate is estimated at 7.7% in FY 2025–26, higher than the 7.1% growth recorded in FY 2024–25.
  • Nominal GDP (at Current Prices) is estimated at ₹346.36 lakh crore, up from ₹318.07 lakh crore in FY 2024–25.
  • The nominal GDP growth rate for FY 2025–26 is estimated at 8.9%.

Gross Value Added (GVA) Estimates

  • Real GVA is estimated at ₹294.91 lakh crore in FY 2025–26, compared to ₹273.36 lakh crore in FY 2024–25.
  • Real GVA registered a growth rate of 7.9% in FY 2025–26, compared to 7.3% in the previous year.
  • Nominal GVA is estimated at ₹314.87 lakh crore, against ₹288.54 lakh crore in FY 2024–25.
  • The nominal GVA growth rate is estimated at 9.1%.

Fourth Quarter (Q4: January–March 2026) Performance

  • Real GDP in Q4 FY 2025–26 is estimated at ₹87.77 lakh crore, compared to ₹81.40 lakh crore in Q4 FY 2024–25.
  • The economy recorded a 7.8% real GDP growth during the fourth quarter.
  • Nominal GDP in Q4 FY 2025–26 is estimated at ₹94.65 lakh crore, compared to ₹86.75 lakh crore a year earlier.
  • The nominal GDP growth rate in Q4 stood at 9.1%.

Q4 Gross Value Added (GVA)

  • Real GVA in Q4 FY 2025–26 is estimated at ₹80.18 lakh crore, up from ₹74.32 lakh crore in Q4 FY 2024–25.
  • Real GVA grew by 7.9% during the quarter.
  • Nominal GVA in Q4 FY 2025–26 is estimated at ₹86.46 lakh crore, compared to ₹78.68 lakh crore in the corresponding quarter of the previous year.
  • The nominal GVA growth rate in Q4 stood at 9.9%.

Q10. Who has been appointed as the next Vice-Chief of the Air Staff (VCAS) of the Indian Air Force, with his official tenure scheduled to commence in July 2026?

(a) Air Marshal Amar Preet Singh

(b) Air Marshal Ashutosh Dixit

(c) Air Marshal Nagesh Kapoor

(d) Air Marshal Vibhas Pande

(e) Air Marshal Pankaj Mohan Sinha

Answer: b

Solution:

In June, 2026, Air Marshal Ashutosh Dixit, a distinguished fighter pilot, has been appointed as the next Vice-Chief of the Air Staff (VCAS) and will assume office on July 1, 2026. He succeeds Air Marshal Nagesh Kapoor.