SBI PO Mains 2019: English Language Memory Based Quiz

SBI-PO-Mains-2019:-English-Language-Memory-Based-Quiz

The SBI PO Mains examination was held on the 20th of July this year where students had the chance to experience the level of question of the State Bank of India probationary examination. It’s was a challenge that was thrilling for all those who appeared for the exam and for all those who were not able to have this experience, Adda247 is here with English Language Memory Based Quiz on SBI PO Mains 2019. Do practice these questions of you are preparing for SBI Clerk mains because we are expecting a similar pattern in the clerical level exam as well.



Directions (1-5): Given below are four sentences which are divided into several parts. Answer the following questions based on these given statements. 

 (A) In most developing countries over the past 30 years(1)/ according to the Food and Agriculture Organisation (2)/ has resulted in low productivity and stagnant production(3)/ insufficient investment in the agriculture sector (4)

 (B) In the Economic Survey this year (1)/ a $5-trillion economy by 2024 is now in the open (2)/with a ‘blue sky’ vision envisaged (3)/ India’s dream of becoming (4)

 (C) Investments reforms in primary sectors (1)/ however, unless there are adequate (2)/ growth in other sectors would be futile (3)/step taken to augment (4)

(D) The document lays down a clear strategy to augment (1)/ in terms of macroeconomic stability to expand growth (2)/ as the current economic conditions are smooth (3)/ the growth of key sectors by shifting gears

(4)

Q1. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the rearrangement of the sentence (A)?

1432
4123
2413
3412
None of these.
Solution:

The first part in the arrangement will be (2) because it is the most appropriate starter of the sentence which then be followed by (4) which is expressing the views of the Food and Agriculture Organization. The next sentence in the arrangement will be (1) followed by (3) to make a meaningful sentence. Hence the correct arrangement is 2413.

Q2. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the rearrangement of the sentence (C)?

1432
2143
4213
3412
None of these.
Solution:

The first part in the arrangement will be (2) because it is the only viable starter. Next in the arrangement will be (1) or (4) but the use of (4) will make the sentence grammatically incorrect. So the second part in the arrangement will be (1) which will be later followed by (4) and (3) to make a meaningful sentence. Hence, the correct option choice would be option (b)


Q3. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the rearrangement of the sentence (B)?

1432
2143
4231
3412
None of these.
Solution:

First part in the arrangement could be either (4) or (1) but choosing (1) as the starting of the sentence will hinder the sentence structure. So, we will start the sentence with (4). Next in the arrangement will be (2) because it is describing about the India’s dream, this will be later followed by (3) and (1) to make a meaningful sentence. Hence, the correct answer choice would be option (c)

Q4. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the rearrangement of the sentence (D)?

1432
2143
2413
3412
None of these.s
Solution:

. In the given sentence, only option only (1) is the most viable starter of the given sentence. This will be later followed by (4) because it is forms a coherent part of the sentence as, ‘strategy to augment the growth of’. Next in the arrangement will be (3) followed by (2). Hence, the correct answer choice would be option (a)

Q5. Rearrange the given four sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and also choose the one which doesn’t match the theme of the passage so formed.

DBA; C
CBA; D
BDC; A
ACD; B
None of these.
Solution:

The correct sequence of the rearrangement will be BDC. However, sentence (A) fails to make coherent sense with the passage because the remaining sentences are discussing about the economy of the India and steps to be taken to achieve the desired goal and sentence (A) is discussing about the reason for low productivity in agricultural sector. Hence, the correct answer choice would be option (c)

 Directions (6-10): In the questions below a statement is given with two blanks in it. For each blank three alternatives are provided in the columns. Choose the alternative from the corresponding column that would fit the give blanks to make the given sentence grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. 

 Q6. Turkey has been a long-standing member of the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation and a/an ______[I]_______ part of the American-led alliance whose principal goal was and continues to be to prevent the _______[II]______ of Russian influence and power

B-E
C-D
A-F
C-F
A-E
Solution:

Integral means necessary to make a whole complete; essential or fundamental.
Mandatory means required by law or mandate; compulsory.
Sanctions mean a threatened penalty for disobeying a law or rule.
Impinge means to have an effect on something, often causing problems by limiting it in some way
Distinguished means very successful, authoritative, and commanding great respect.
Hence, the correct combination of word to fill the given blanks would be option (c)

Q7. Pegasus is an invasive tool that can reportedly ______[I]_______ on a target’s cell phone camera and microphone, and access data on it, ______[II]_______ turning the phone into a pocket spy

B-D
C-E
A-F
C-F
A-D
Solution:

Pious means sincere but unlikely to be fulfilled
Ripen means become or make ripe.
Imminent means about to happen.
Deter means prevent the occurrence of.
So, from the given options, only option (b) will fill the given blanks to make the given sentences both grammatically and contextually correct. Hence, the correct choice would be option (b)


Q8. The forensic audit report on credit rating agencies (CRAs) of IL&FS has alleged serious ______[I]_______ on the part of such agencies that had concerns related to the ______[II]_______ of the entity way back in 2012 but chose to downgrade ratings only in 2018. 

B-D
C-E
A-F
C-F
A-E
Solution:

Lapses means a decline from previously high standards.
Brawl means fight or quarrel in a rough or noisy way.
Lofty means of a noble or elevated nature.
Hauled means propel or pull oneself with difficulty.
So, from the given options, only option (e) will fill the given blanks to make the given sentences both grammatically and contextually correct. Hence, the correct choice would be option (e)

Q9. India’s dream of ________[I]_______ a $5-trillion economy by 2024 is now in the open with a ‘blue sky’ vision ________[II]_______ in the Economic Survey this year. 

B-D
C-E
A-E
C-F
A-D
Solution:

Evokes means bring or recall to the conscious mind.
Envisaged means contemplate or conceive of as a possibility or a desirable future event.
Devious means showing a skilful use of underhand tactics to achieve goals.
So, from the given options, only option (c) will fill the given blanks to make the given sentences both grammatically and contextually correct. Hence, the correct choice would be option (c)

Q10. With the Supreme Court-led process of ________[I]_______ the National Register of Citizens in Assam nearing its deadline of July 31, the ________[II]________ involved in the gargantuan exercise have dawned upon the executive.

B-E
C-E
A-F
C-F
C-D

Solution:

Altercate means dispute or argue noisily and publicly.
Duping means to deceive someone, usually by making that person do something that they did not intend to do
Doctrine means a belief or set of beliefs held and taught by a Church, political party, or other group.
Perspicuous means clearly expressed and easily understood; lucid
So, from the given options, only option (e) will fill the given blanks to make the given sentences both grammatically and contextually correct. Hence, the correct choice would be option (e)