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GA Capsule for SBI Clerk Mains 2025, Download PDF

The SBI Clerk Mains Exam 2025 is scheduled for 10 and 12 April 2025, making it essential for candidates to enhance their General Awareness (GA) section to boost their overall scores. The GA section holds significant weight, encompassing current affairs, banking awareness, and static GK. To support candidates in their preparation, we have curated a detailed GA Capsule PDF that includes all key topics necessary for excelling in the SBI Clerk Mains Exam 2025.

GA Capsule for SBI Clerk Mains 2025

The GA Capsule for SBI Clerk Mains 2025 is an essential resource for candidates aiming to excel in the General Awareness section. The General Awareness section in the SBI Clerk Mains exam helps candidates score high marks in less time as it does not require lengthy calculations. Well-prepared aspirants can attempt this section quickly and accurately, boosting their overall score. The GA section primarily includes current affairs, banking and financial news, and important static GK topics.

Read Also: SBI Clerk Mains Admit Card 2025

GA Capsule for SBI Clerk Mains 2025, Download PDF

To help aspirants in their preparation, we are providing a free downloadable PDF that covers all the important General Awareness topics for the SBI Clerk 2025 Mains exam. Click on the link below to download the GA Capsule:

SBI Clerk Mains GA Capsule 2025
GA Capsule for SBI Clerk Mains 2025: Download Part 1 and 2 PDF

GA Capsule for SBI PO Mains 2025- Click Here to Download

GA Capsule for SBI Clerk Mains 2025, Download PDF_3.1

SBI Clerk Mains GA Capsule Contains

The GA Capsule PDF provided here covers a wide range of topics relevant to the SBI Clerk Mains 2025, ensuring that aspirants have access to all important updates in one place. Below is the list of topics covered:

1. National Current Affairs

  • Important government schemes, policies, and initiatives
  • Major developments in Indian states and union territories
  • Infrastructure projects and national-level appointments

2. International Current Affairs

  • Global events impacting India and the world
  • Political changes and international summits
  • Agreements between nations

3. New Appointments (National & International)

  • Key government and corporate sector appointments
  • Changes in leadership at central banks, ministries, and international organizations

4. Agreements/Memorandum of Understanding (MoUs)

  • Agreements signed between India and other countries
  • MoUs between banks, companies, and government bodies

5. Banking Current Affairs

  • RBI updates, monetary policy changes, and banking reforms
  • Mergers, acquisitions, and financial market trends
  • Digital banking initiatives and fintech developments

6. Economy/Business Current Affairs

  • GDP growth rates, economic indicators, and policy changes
  • Business expansions, acquisitions, and major investments
  • Important reports and economic rankings

7. Defense Current Affairs

  • Defence deals, acquisitions, and new weapon systems
  • Military exercises and strategic alliances
  • Appointments and retirements in the defence sector

8. Awards & Recognition

  • National and international awards in various fields
  • Prestigious honours like Bharat Ratna, Padma Awards, and Nobel Prize

9. Summits | Events | Festivals (National & International)

  • Important national and international summits and conferences
  • Cultural and religious festivals across India and the world

10. Committees & Meetings

  • Government and corporate sector committees
  • Important high-level meetings and policy decisions

11. List/Indexes (Ranks & Reports)

  • India’s ranking in global indices and reports
  • Reports by organizations like the World Bank, IMF, UN, and WEF

12. Books & Authors

  • Newly released books and their authors
  • Important literary awards

13. Sports Current Affairs

  • Major sports events and tournaments
  • Achievements of Indian and international athletes

14. Science & Technology

  • Latest technological advancements and innovations
  • ISRO, NASA, and other space missions

15. Schemes/Apps/Portals

  • Government welfare schemes and newly launched portals
  • Updates on digital initiatives and mobile applications

16. Important Days

  • National and international observances
  • Themes of special days

17. Environment

  • Climate change events and reports
  • Government and global environmental initiatives

18. Obituaries (National/International)

  • Notable personalities from various fields who passed away

19. Miscellaneous Current Affairs & One-Liners

  • Other crucial events and quick revision points

20. Static Takeaways Current Affairs

  • Important historical, geographical, and political facts related to India and the world
Related Capsules You Must Not Miss
Appointments Capsule Schemes Capsule
Important Days Capsule Awards Capsule
Summits & Conferences Capsule Ranks & Reports Capsule

How to Use the GA Capsule Effectively?

To utilize the GA Capsule, candidates must adopt a smart study approach. Regular revision, note-making, and quiz practice will help in better retention and recall. Prioritizing key topics like banking and the economy is crucial for maximizing scores in the SBI Clerk Mains Exam 2025.

  • Revise Regularly: Read the PDF daily to stay updated with important events.
  • Make Notes: Write down key points for quick revision before the exam.
  • Attempt Quizzes: Solve daily quizzes on current affairs to strengthen your knowledge.
  • Focus on Banking & Economy: Since SBI Clerk is a banking exam, prioritize banking and financial awareness.
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SBI Clerk Online Batch SBI Clerk Mock Test
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Featured

The Hindu Review October 2022: Download Hindu Review PDF

In order to help applicants study for the General Awareness Section, which is significant in many competitive examinations, The Hindu Review compiles all the current events for a month and organises them by category. News from “The Hindu newspaper,” as well as from publications like Indian Express and Mint, as well as from websites like PIB and NewsOnAir, is covered by The Hindu Review.

What has changed in the Hindu Review?

The news is presented in The Hindu Review in a succinct and clear manner. We have included external links for each news item if you want to read the news in more depth.

Which examinations will Hindu review be helpful for?

NIACL PO Mains, LIC AAO Mains, EPFO SSA, FCI, various banks and SSC exams, SBI PO Mains, SBI Junior Associates, IBPS PO Mains, IBPS Clerk Mains, SSC CGL, SSC CHSL, RBI Grade B, NABARD Grade A, SEBI Grade A, and NIACL PO Mains. The general studies part of the State PCS will benefit from this pdf.

What are the categories of The Hindu Review?

  1. Banking and Financial Current Affairs
  2. Economy Current Affairs
  3. Business Current Affairs
  4. International Current Affairs
  5. National Current Affairs
  6. States Current Affairs
  7. Schemes/Committees
  8. Agreement/Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
  9. Appointments/Resignations (National & International)
  10. Ranks and Reports
  11. Sports Current Affairs
  12. Summits And Conferences
  13. Awards & Recognition
  14. Important Days
  15. Defence Current Affairs
  16. Science and Technology
  17. Books & Authors
  18. Miscellaneous Current Affairs
  19. Obituaries

Hindu Review October 2022: Important News Updates

  • Nobel prize 2022
  • 36th National Games 2022
  • Global Hunger Index 2022
  • Times Higher Education Rankings 2023
  • World Green City award 2022
  • Britain’s Booker Prize 2022
  • Sir Syed Excellence Award 2022
  • 2022 Ballon d’Or awards
  • Rashtriya Ekta Diwas or National Unity Day 2022
  • ICC Player of the Month

How to Download The Hindu Review of October 2022?

i. Click on the Hindu Review link mentioned below.
ii. A ”form” by ADDA247 will open.
iii. Fill in your name, email, etc. in that form.
iv. Click on the Submit button.
v. You will get a link to download the Hindu Review PDF of October 2022.

Click Here to download The Hindu Review October 2022

GA Capsule for SBI Clerk Mains 2025, Download PDF_5.1

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SBI PO Mains Reasoning Questions With Solutions

The SBI PO Mains exam is coming up soon, and it’s a great time to focus on the reasoning section. This part is very important in both the prelims and mains. If you want to become a Probationary Officer at the State Bank of India, you need to be good at solving reasoning questions. They check how well you can think and solve problems quickly. So make sure to practice different types of reasoning questions every day. It will really help you feel more confident and do better in the exam. In this article we have provided SBI PO Mains Reasoning Questions With Solutions.

Reasoning Questions in SBI PO Exam

Before diving into the Reasoning questions, it’s crucial to acquaint ourselves with the diverse question structures organized by topics for the SBI PO  Exam. The Reasoning segment of the SBI PO test comprises a variety of question styles carefully designed to assess candidates’ logical and analytical abilities. Some common question formats include:

Question Format
Topic Question Type
Seating Arrangement Arranging individuals or objects in an order based on the given conditions, such as circular arrangement, linear arrangement, or rectangular arrangement.
Puzzles Arranging elements or variables based on the given conditions to arrive at a logical solution.
Syllogism Drawing logical conclusions from the statements provided using the set of rules.
Blood Relation Determining the relationship between different individuals based on the information given.
Coding-Decoding Deciphering the coded messages or patterns from the underlying logic.
Input-Output Understand the logic behind a series of inputs and outputs to answer questions based on the pattern.
Direction Sense Interpreting the directions and navigating through a given scenario or finding out the distance.
Logical Reasoning Evaluate arguments, draw conclusions, and identify patterns in the given set of information.
Inequalities Questions involving comparing quantities and determining the relationship and comparison between them.
Logical Reasoning  Logical reasoning questions involve deductive reasoning, pattern recognition, and drawing logical conclusions.

Logical Reasoning for SBI PO

Logical Reasoning also forms important part of Reasoning Section in mains exam of SBI PO. Some of the important topics under logical reasoning are mentioned in the table below.

Logical Reasoning
Topics Description
Statement & Conclusion This topic involves analyzing a set of statements and determining the logical conclusion or inference that can be drawn from them, based on the information provided.
Statement & Assumption In this topic, candidates evaluate whether the given statements imply certain assumptions, and assess the validity of those assumptions in relation to the context provided.
Cause & Effect Cause and effect questions require candidates to identify the relationship between events or phenomena, determining which is the cause and which is the effect based on the given information.
Statement & Inference This topic involves analyzing statements to derive logical inferences or conclusions that can be reasonably drawn from them, considering implicit meanings or implications beyond the explicit information provided.

Weightage of Reasoning in SBI PO Exam

The importance of reasoning questions in the SBI PO examination cannot be overstated, as they constitute a significant portion of the total marks. Achieving mastery in this section is essential for candidates aiming to perform well in the exam. Reasoning questions come in various formats, such as puzzles, seating arrangements, coding-decoding, syllogism, and logical reasoning. Each type of question requires distinct problem-solving approaches, evaluating the candidate’s analytical abilities and logical reasoning skills. Recognizing its significance, candidates often devote considerable time to practicing reasoning questions to improve their proficiency and enhance their chances of success in the SBI PO examination.

Weightage of Reasoning in SBI PO Exam
Exam No. of Questions Total Marks
Prelims  35 35
Mains 40 50

Tips and Tricks to Solve SBI PO Reasoning Questions

For many candidates, excelling in the Reasoning Ability section offers an opportunity to achieve high scores, provided they have a solid understanding of the fundamental concepts underlying the questions in this section. Mastering SBI PO reasoning questions demands strategic approaches. Here are some guidelines to effectively tackle them:

Grasp Question Types: Get familiar with different types of reasoning questions like puzzles, syllogism, coding-decoding, and seating arrangement. Recognizing question patterns aids in devising suitable solving techniques.

Regular Practice: Consistent practice is crucial for improving reasoning skills. Solve a variety of reasoning questions from past SBI Clerk papers and practice sets to enhance problem-solving abilities and speed.

Enhance Logical Thinking: Reasoning questions often require logical deduction and analysis. Strengthen logical thinking by regularly solving puzzles, riddles, and brain teasers. Break down complex problems into smaller, manageable parts for more efficient solutions.

Daily Online Quizzes: Regularly attempt Reasoning Ability questions through mock tests and quizzes on platforms like the Adda247 app. This significantly reinforces concepts and sharpens problem-solving skills.

Manage Time: Wisely allocate time to each question during practice sessions. Set time limits for different question types to improve speed and accuracy. Initially skip difficult questions and return to them later if time allows.

Utilize Elimination Techniques: When encountering multiple-choice questions, eliminate obviously incorrect options to narrow down choices. This increases the likelihood of selecting the correct answer, especially when unsure about the solution.

Incorporating these strategies into your preparation regimen empowers you to confidently tackle SBI PO reasoning questions, thus maximizing your chances of success in the exam.

SBI PO Mains Reasoning Questions with Solutions

Directions (1-4): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it:
A certain number of persons sit in a row facing north. The known persons like different colors. On counting from left, the persons at even positions are managers and the persons at odd positions are associates. Four persons are in between A and the one who likes red. G sits third to the left of A. The one who likes blue sits exactly between G and the one who likes red. Four persons are in between C and the one who likes blue. The one who likes pink sits immediate right of C. D sits three persons sit to the right of the one who likes pink. The number of persons sit to the right of D is equal to the square root of the number of persons sit between D and the one who likes red. T sits sixth to the left of H who sits adjacent to C. H likes pink and sits immediate right of the one who likes yellow. No one sits to the left of B who sits adjacent to T. The one who likes black sits fourth from right end. The one who likes grey sits second to the right of B and third to the left of the one who likes white.

Q1. How many associates sit to the right of the one who likes white?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six
(e) More than six
Q2. What is the position of C with respect to the one who likes grey?
(a) 5th to the right
(b) 7th to the right
(c) 8th to the left
(d) Immediate right
(e) 4th to the right
Q3. Which of the following statement is correct?
I. The one who sits 7th to the right of B is manager.
II. Four associates sit between B and the one who likes black.
III. H is manager and sits second to the right of A
(a) Only II
(b) Only III
(c) Only I and II
(d) Only I and III
(e) All I, II and III
Q4. Choose the incorrect combination.
(a) G – grey – associate
(b) D – black – associate
(c) A – white – manager
(d) T – blue – manager
(e) B – yellow – associate

Directions (5-8): Read the following information carefully and answer the following
Eight persons—A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H—are sitting in a circular arrangement, all facing the center. Each of them has a unique card number ranging from 2 to 9. Each person holds a distinct card number ranging from 2 to 9. Note: The difference between the card numbers of persons sitting adjacent to each other is more than 1. C sits sixth to the right of the person whose card number is a prime number. Two persons sit between the person who sits second to the right of C and G. The person whose card number is a multiple of 5 is an immediate neighbour of G. F sits third to the right of the person whose card number is a multiple of 5. The person who sits opposite to the person whose card number is 5 has card number which is two less than card number G. The person whose card number is 8 sits second to the left of F. One person sits between the person who has 6 card number and H. A is an immediate neighbour of the person who has card number 6 and has card number that is a multiple of 3. Card number of B is not 2, 5 and 8. The person who sits second to the left of A has card number 4. The difference between card number of C and A is equal to card number of B. D is an immediate neighbour of the person who has card number 3. D is not an immediate neighbour of A and H. D doesn’t sit opposite to H and F. E is an immediate neighbour of G.

Q5. Who among the following person sits fourth to the right of the person who has card number 4?
(a) H
(b) B
(c) The person who has card number 5
(d) D
(e) None of these
Q6. What is the sum of the card numbers of C, G and H?
(a) 25
(b) 20
(c) 23
(d) 21
(e) None of these
Q7. How many persons sit between the person who has card number 9 and E when counting in
the anti-clockwise direction from E?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) One
(e) Two
Q8. Which of the following pairs are adjacent and have card numbers differing less than 4?
(a) A and B
(b) E and G
(c) C and D
(d) H and A
(e) None of these
Directions (9-13): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Fourteen persons B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, N and O sit around two tables—one circular (referred to
as a rope-shaped table) inscribed within a square-shaped table. Four persons sit at the corners of the square table, while four sit in the middle of the sides. The persons who sit at corners face inside and the persons who sit on the middle of the sides of table face outside. Six persons sit at the circular rope-shaped table at a distance of multiples of 3 between them consecutively such as 3m, 6m, 9m and so on. The persons who sit on the circular rope shaped table face inside. F sits 9m to the left of J in a circular shaped table. There is distance of 27m between J and G when counting from one of the sides from J. O sits third to the right of I. Two persons sit between O and N. L sits immediately to the right of C. N doesn’t sit on the middle of the sides of the table. G is an immediate neighbour M. There is a distance of 42m between G and B. There is a distance of more than 12m between B and R when counting from both sides of B. There is a distance of more than 15m between R and G when counting from both sides of R. H sits third to the left of D. E sits third to the left of L. D is not an immediate neighbour of O.
Q9. What is the position of D with respect of C?
(a) Fifth to the left
(b) Fifth to the right
(c) Sixth to the right
(d) Sixth to the left
(e) Second to the right
Q10. If E and R interchanged their places then who sits 45m away from E when counting from
one of the sides from E?
(a) B
(b) F
(c) H
(d) R
(e) M
Q11. Which of the following pairs of persons are immediate neighbors?
(a) E and O
(b) R and G
(c) F and J
(d) B and M
(e) J and B
Q12. Four of the following five form a group based on their seating arrangement. Which one does
not belong to this group?
(a) B
(b) O
(c) I
(d) N
(e) C
Q13. Which of the following statements is true?
I. F sits at a distance of 9m from M when counting right of M.
II. L sits at one of the corners of the square-shaped table.
III. Four persons sit between H and C when counting from left of C.
(a) Only I
(b) Both I and II
(c) Both II and III
(d) Only III
(e) Only II

Directions (14-18): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it:
A certain number of persons are seated in a row facing north. Some of the persons like different colours. The total number of persons in the row is four times the number of persons sitting to the right of the one who likes white. The person who likes blue sits second to the left of N who sits 3rd to the right of the one who likes red. Two persons sit between O and M who sits sixth to the right of N. The person who likes brown sits exactly between P and Q who is adjacent to O. Four persons sit between R and S. O sits third from one end and is two places to the left of the one who likes purple. The one who likes orange sits second from the right end. Two persons sit between O and the one who likes brown. The one who likes green sits exactly between P and S. The one who likes white sits immediate right of M. The one who likes grey sits third to the left of T who sits third to the left of the one who likes purple. Neither N nor immediate neighbour of N likes green.
Q14. Who sits second to the left of the one who sits 3rd to the right of S?
(a) The person who likes blue
(b) The person who likes grey
(c) O
(d) The person who likes white
(e) R
Q15. How many persons are seated to the left of M?
(a) 14
(b) 15
(c) 13
(d) 10
(e) 12
Q16. Which colour does the person who sits immediate left of R likes?
(a) Green
(b) Grey
(c) Purple
(d) Orange
(e) Blue
Q17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the
following does not belong to that group?
(a) Q, M
(b) R, P
(c) S, The one who likes white
(d) O, M
(e) T, The one who likes grey
Q18. How many persons sit between O and the person who likes blue?
(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) 9
(e) 14
Directions (19-21): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions below:
Eight persons sit in two parallel rows – A, B, C and D sit in Row-1 and face north while P, Q, R and S sit in row 2 and face south, but not necessarily in same order. Each person has a different number of chocolates with them. The sum of total number of chocolates in row 1 is 139 and the sum of total number of chocolates in row 2 is 136. The person who sits opposite to B sits second to the right of the person who has 22 chocolates. Only one person sits between the one who has 16 chocolates and B. Sis immediate neighbour of the one who has 22 chocolates. S sits second to the left of R who sits opposite to the one who has 64 Chocolates. One of the immediate neighbours of R has 29 chocolates. The sum of number of chocolates Q and R have is 70. The one who sits immediately to the right of B has 34 chocolates. B doesn’t sit opposite to Q. More than one person sits between D and A. D doesn’t sit opposite to Q.
Q19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and form a group. Which of the
following does not belong to the group?
(a) Q
(b) B
(c) R
(d) C
(e) A
Q20. What is the sum of the number of chocolates S, B and C have?
(a) 86
(b) 91
(c) 98
(d) 81
(e) 96
Q21. If R is related to B and in the same way S is related to A then who among the following is
related to C?
(a) D
(b) Q
(c) P
(d) The one who has 16 chocolates
(e) The one who has 37 chocolates

Directions (22-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
A certain number of persons sit in a row and face north. F sits fourth to the right of C. Two persons sit between F and K. The number of persons sit between H and F is thrice the number of persons sit between K and E. Five persons sit between C and H and H doesn’t sit to the right of F. E doesn’t sit to the left of F. Two persons sit between R and M who sits second from one of the extreme ends of the row. O sits sixth to the right of K. More than three persons sit between K and B. B sits exactly between H and C. R sits immediately to the right of E. As many persons sit to the right of E as to the left of B.
Q22. Who among the following sits sixth to the right of the person who sits tenth to the right of
B?
(a) R
(b) M
(c) K
(d) O
(e) None of these
Q23. How many persons sit between E and H?
(a) Nineteen
(b) Twelve
(c) As many persons sit between C and M
(d) As many persons sit between B and K
(e) Sixteen
Q24. What is the difference between total numbers of persons
sit in this row and total number of persons sit between F and
E?
(a) 18
(b) 19
(c) 25
(d) 20
(e) None of these
Q25. Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. E sits exactly between K and M
II. Ten persons sit between C and O.
III. B sits eight to the left of K.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) Both II and III
(e) Both I and III

Test Prime

 

Answers:

 Answers
1. b 6. d 11. e 16. e 21. c
2. e 7. e 12. a 17. a 22. d
3. e 8. d 13. c 18. c 23. e
4. e 9. c 14. b 19. b 24. b
5. b 10. b 15. d 20. e 25. a

 

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RRB NTPC Exam Date 2025, Expected CBT 1 Exam Schedule

The RRB NTPC 2025 Exam Date schedule is expected to be released shortly, with the CBT likely to take place between May and June 2025. This year, a total of 11,558 vacancies have been announced for various NTPC posts. With over 1.21 crore applications already received, the level of competition is set to be intense. Aspirants must stay alert for official updates regarding the exam dates and focus on sharpening their preparation. Success in this highly competitive exam demands consistent effort, smart planning, and a focused mindset. Stay motivated and prepare strategically to increase your chances of selection.

RRB NTPC 2025 Exam Date 

If you’re preparing for the RRB Exam 2025, it’s crucial to stay alert, as the official RRB NTPC Exam Date 2025 haven’t been announced yet. However, the Computer-Based Test (CBT) is tentatively expected to take place in the last week of May 2025. To stay ahead, maintain a steady preparation routine and regularly visit the official RRB website for the latest updates. Once the schedule is released, important details like exam city information, shift timings, and admit card download dates will be made available. Staying proactive and well-organized now will ensure you’re ready when the exam day arrives.

RRB NTPC 2025 Exam Date Overview

If you are among the candidates who have successfully filled out the RRB NTPC examination form, it’s time to gear up for the upcoming exam. Stay alerted for official updates, as all crucial information will be shared on the respective RRB websites.

RRB NTPC Exam Date 2025
Exam Conducting Body Railway Recruitment Board (RRB)
Exam Name Non-Technical Popular Categories (NTPC)
Posts Graduate & Undergraduate Level
RRB NTPC Exam Date 2025 May-June 2025
RRB NTPC Admit Card Release Date 1 week before the Exam Date
Exam City Intimation Approx. 10 Days Before the Exam
Vacancies 11,558
Total Number of Applicants Around 1,21,67,679
Mode of Exam Online (Computer-Based Test)
Question Type Objective
Exam Duration 90 minutes
Selection Process CBT 1, CBT 2, CBAT, Document Verification
Official Website http://www.rrbcdg.gov.in/

Step to Download RRB NTPC 2025 Exam Date

With over 1.21 crore applicants eagerly waiting, the RRB NTPC 2025 Exam Date is expected to be released soon. Here’s a simple and updated guide to help you through the process:

Step by Step Guide to Check the RRB NTPC Exam Date Notice

Step 1: Visit the official Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) website of your respective zone.
Step 2: On the homepage, locate the latest notifications section and find the link titled “RRB NTPC 2025 Exam Date” or similar.
Step 3: Choose the relevant notification either for NTPC Graduate or NTPC Undergraduate, based on your application.
Step 4: Click on the link to open the official exam schedule PDF.
Step 5: Download the PDF and save it to your device for easy access and reference later.

RRB Exam Date 2025 Schedule

Due to the high number of applicants for the RRB NTPC 2025 exam, CBT 1 is likely to be conducted in multiple shifts at various exam centers. Candidates should be prepared for different timings depending on their scheduled shift. To avoid any delays, it is a good idea to arrive before your scheduled reporting time. More detailed information about shift assignments and reporting times will be made available as the exam date approaches.

Shift Exam Timing Reporting Time
Shift 1 09:00 am – 10:30 am 07:30 AM
Shift 2 12:45 pm – 02:15 pm 12:15 AM
Shift 3 04:30 pm – 06:00 pm 03:00 PM

GA Capsule for SBI Clerk Mains 2025, Download PDF_3.1

RRB NTPC Exam 2025 Vacancy

The Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) is set to recruit a total of 11,558 candidates through the RRB NTPC Exam 2025. Of these, 8,113 vacancies are available for graduate level posts, while 3,445 vacancies are set for post graduate level posts. Reflecting the immense popularity and competitiveness of this recruitment drive, around 1,21,67,679 candidates have applied for various posts under RRB NTPC 2025.

Name of Post Vacancy
Graduate Level Posts
Goods Train Manager 3144
Chief Commercial cum Ticket Supervisor 1736
Senior Clerk cum Typist 732
Junior Account Assistant cum Typist 1507
Station Master 944
Total (Graduate Level) 8113
Non-Technical Popular Category (Under Graduate Level)
Accounts Clerk cum Typist 361
Comm. Cum Ticket Clerk 2022
Jr. Clerk cum Typist 990
Trains Clerk 72
Total (Under Graduate Level) 3445
Grand Total (A + B) 11,558

RRB NTPC Exam Pattern 2025

The RRB NTPC CBT 1 Exam 2025 will consist of a total of 100 questions carrying 100 marks, with a time limit of 90 minutes to complete the test. The exam will be divided into three key sections: Mathematics (30 questions), General Intelligence and Reasoning (30 questions), and General Awareness (40 questions). Since each section is equally important, candidates must plan their strategy wisely to maximize their attempts within the allotted time.

Check RRB NTPC Syllabus and Exam Pattern 2025

RRB NTPC Exam Admit Card

The RRB NTPC Exam date will be announced soon on the official website. Candidates have several queries related to the RRB NTPC Exam Admit Card 2025. Once the exam schedule is released, the admit card will be made available approximately one week before the exam of RRB NTPC. Candidates will be able to download their admit cards from the official website up to the exam date. It is advised to download the admit card early to avoid last-minute technical issues.

RRB NTPC Exam Passing Marks

To clear the CBT 1 stage of the RRB NTPC Exam, candidates must achieve the minimum qualifying marks set according to their categories. General and EWS candidates are required to score at least 40%, while the qualifying mark for OBC (non-creamy layer) and SC candidates is 30%. For ST candidates, the minimum qualifying percentage is 25%. Candidates who meet these cut-off criteria in CBT 1 will be shortlisted for CBT 2, with the number of shortlisted candidates being up to 15 times the total vacancies available.

RRB NTPC Exam Centers 2025

During the application process for RRB NTPC 2025, candidates have the opportunity to pick their desired exam city. The Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) offers a wide range of cities across its several zones for candidates to choose from. Check out the list of RRB Exam Centers where the upcoming NTPC exam will be held.

State/UT Exam Centres
Andaman and Nicobar Port Blair
Andhra Pradesh
Amalapuram, Anantapur, Bhimavaram, Challapalli, Chirala, Chittoor, Eluru, Gooty, Gudivada, Gudur, Guntur, Kadapa, Kakinada, Kanchikachera, Kavali, Kurnool, Nandyal, Narasapuram, Narasaraopet, Nellore, Ongole, Prodattur, Puttur, Rajahmundry, Rajam, Rajampet, Srikakulam, Surampalem, Tadipalligudem, Tekkali, Tirupathi, Vijayawada, Visakhapatnam, Vuzuabagran
Arunachal Pradesh
Itanagar, Naharlagun
Assam
Dibrugarh, Guwahati, Jorhat, Kokrajhar, Silchar, Tezpur
Bihar
Arrah, Aurangabad, Bhagalpur, Bihar Sharif, Darbhanga, Gaya, Hajipur, Muzaffarpur, Patna, Purnea, Samastipur, Siwan
Chandigarh Chandigarh
Chhattisgarh
Bilaspur, Durg, Bhilai, Nagpur, Raipur
Delhi/NCR
Ghaziabad, Greater Noida, New Delhi, Noida
Goa Verna
Gujarat
Ahmedabad, Anand, Bharuch, Bhavnagar, Bhuj, Dadra, Gandhinagar, Godhra, Himatnagar, Jamnagar, Junagadh, Mehsana, Nadiad, Navsari, Rajkot, Silvassa, Surat, Surendranagar, Vadodara, Valsad, Vapi
Haryana
Ambala, Bahadurgarh, Gurgaon, Hisar, Jhajjar, Jind, Kaithal, Karnal, Kurukshetra, Mohindergarh, Panchkula, Panipat, Rewari, Rohtak, Sirsa, Sonipat, Yamuna Nagar
Himachal Pradesh
Baddi, Bilaspur, Dharamsala, Hamirpur, Kangra, Kullu, Mandi, Palampur, Shimla, Sirmaur, Solan, Sunder Nagar, Una
Jammu and Kashmir
Anantnag, Awantipora, Baramulla, Jammu, Kathua, Pulwama, Samba, Srinagar, Udhampur
Jharkhand
Bokaro, Dhanbad, Hazaribagh, Jamshedpur, Ranchi
Karnataka
Bagalkot, Belgaum, Bellary, Bijapur, Chikballapur, Chikmagalur, Davanagere, Dharwad, Gadag, Gulbarga, Hassan, Hubli, Kolar, Mangalore, Mysore, Puttur, Shimoga, Surathkal, Tumkur, Udupi, Uttara Kannada
Kerala
Alappuzha, Ernakulam, Idukki, Kannur, Kasaragod, Kollam, Kottayam, Kozhikode, Malappuram, Palakkad, Pathanamthitta, Thrissur, Trivandrum
Madhya Pradesh
Bhopal, Gwalior, Indore, Jabalpur, Rewa, Sagar, Satna, Ujjain
Maharashtra
Ahmednagar, Akola, Amaravati, Aurangabad, Beed, Bhandara, Buldhana, Chandrapur, Dhule, Gadchiroli, Gondia, Jalgaon, Latur, Madgaon, Mumbai, Nagpur, Nandurbar, Nashik, Navi Mumbai, Pandharpur, Parbhani, Pimpri-Chinchwad, Pune, Raigad, Ratnagiri, Sangamner, Sangli, Satara, Solapur, Sindhudurg, Thane, Wardha, Washim, Yavatmal
Manipur Imphal
Meghalaya
Shillong, Ri-Bhoi
Mizoram Aizawl
Nagaland
Dimapur, Kohima
Odisha
Angul, Balasore, Bargarh, Bhubaneswar, Baripada, Berhampur-Ganjam, Cuttack, Dhenkanal, Jeypore, Jharsuguda, Khurda, Rayagada, Rourkela, Sambalpur
Puducherry Puducherry

Difference Between Admit Card and City Intimation Slip?

Admit card and city intimation slip serve different purposes in the examination process. Admit card is an important document issued by the exam conducting authority that allows the candidate to appear for the exam. It contains essential details such as candidate’s name, roll number, exam centre, exam date, time and instructions for the exam day. On the other hand, the city intimation slip is a preliminary document that informs candidates about the city of their exam centre. It does not provide the specific location or detailed information about the exam schedule. The city intimation slip is usually issued before the admit card and helps candidates plan their travel.

SBI PO Mains Admit Card 2025 Out, Download Link to Download Call Letter

The SBI PO Mains Exam 2025 is fast approaching. Candidates who have successfully cleared the prelims can now download their SBI PO Mains Admit Card from the official SBI website at www.sbi.co.in. The exam is scheduled for 5 May 2025 to recruit candidates for 600 Probationary Officer (PO) posts. With the exam date nearing, candidates are advised to download their admit cards without delay and gear up for the final phase of their preparation.

SBI PO Mains Admit Card 2025 Out

Candidates gearing up for the SBI PO Mains Exam 2025 can now easily download their admit cards through the direct link provided below. The SBI PO Mains Admit Card 2025 holds key information such as the reporting time, exam centre details, and essential instructions that every candidate must follow on the exam day. Make sure to check all details carefully and be fully prepared to avoid any last-minute hassle.

SBI PO Admit Card 2025: Overview

SBI PO Mains exam is scheduled on 05 May 2025, so candidates are urged to download their admit cards immediately and focus on their last-minute preparation. A detailed overview of the SBI PO Admit Card 2025 is given in the table below for your reference.

SBI PO Mains Admit Card 2025
Organisation State Bank of India
Exam SBI PO 2025
Post Probationary Officer
Vacancy 600
Category Admit Card
Status Released
SBI PO Mains Admit Card 2025 Release Date 18 April 2025
SBI PO Mains Exam Date 05 May 2025
Login Credentials Registration Number
Password
Details Mentioned on Admit Card Candidate’s Name & Roll Number
Exam Date
Reporting Time & Shift Timing, and
Instructions for the Examination
Selection Process Prelims, Mains & Interview
Official Website www.sbi.co.in
WhatsApp Official Channel Join WhatsApp Channel

SBI Probationary Officer Mains Admit Card 2025 Download Link

To make it easier for you, we’ve provided a direct link below for quick access to your SBI Probationary Officer Admit Card 2025. Candidates must download and print their admit cards well in advance to avoid any last-minute rush. Remember, carrying a valid photo ID along with the admit card is mandatory for entry into the exam centre. If you haven’t downloaded your admit card yet, do it right away and stay focused on your final preparation.

SBI PO Mains Admit Card 2025: Click Here to Download

Are You Appearing for SBI PO Mains Exam 2025?

SBI PO Mains Information Handout: English

SBI PO Mains Information Handout: Hindi

Test Prime

Steps To Download SBI PO Mains Admit Card

Candidates can follow these steps to download their SBI Clerk Mains Admit Card:

  • Go to the official website of the State Bank of India – sbi.co.in.
  • On the homepage, click on the ‘Careers’ section.
  • Look for the link titled ‘SBI PO Mains Admit Card 2025’ and click on it.
  • You’ll be taken to the login page.
  • Enter your registration number and password or date of birth in the required fields.
  • Once you submit the details, your SBI PO Mains Admit Card will be displayed on the screen.
  • Download the admit card and take a printout for exam day use.

Details Mentioned on SBI PO Mains Call Letter 2025

The SBI PO Mains Admit Card 2025 contains all the important details that candidates need to know before appearing for the exam. After downloading the admit card, carefully you have to check the information mentioned on the sbi po mains call letter  If there are any errors, candidates should immediately contact the exam authority to get them corrected.

Here are the important details mentioned on the admit card:

  • Candidate’s Name
  • Roll Number/Registration Number
  • Gender
  • Date of Birth
  • Candidate’s Photograph
  • Father’s and Mother’s Name
  • Category and Sub-Category
  • Exam Date and Shift Timing
  • Name and Address of the Exam Centre
  • Exam Centre Code
  • Post Applied For
  • Duration of the Exam
  • Important Exam Instructions
  • Signature of the Candidate
  • Signature of the Exam Counsellor

Make sure to carry a printed copy of the admit card along with a valid photo ID to the exam centre.

Important Guidelines for SBI PO Mains Exam 2025

As you prepare for the SBI PO Mains Exam 2025, it’s important to follow the guidelines carefully for a smooth experience on exam day. Here’s a quick checklist to keep in mind:

  • Carry your Admit Card, valid photo ID (original + photocopy), and two passport-sized photos.
  • Ensure your signature matches the one uploaded during the application.
  • Reach the exam centre on time; latecomers won’t be allowed.
  • Listen carefully to the invigilator’s instructions and fill in the handwriting sample properly.
  • Avoid carrying mobile phones, smartwatches, calculators, or any study material.
  • Stay seated until the exam ends and wait for invigilator’s permission to leave.
  • Any misconduct or malpractice will lead to immediate disqualification.

SBI PO Mains Exam Pattern

SBI PO Mains Exam Structure 2025
The SBI PO Mains 2025 exam is divided into two main sections: the Objective Test and the Descriptive Test. Below is a breakdown of the exam:

1. Objective Test

  • Total Duration: 180 minutes (3 hours)
  • Total Marks: 200
  • Number of Questions: 170
  • Marking Scheme: 0.25 penalty for each incorrect answer

Sections in the Objective Test:

  • English Language: 40 Questions | 40 Minutes | 20 Marks
  • Data Analysis & Interpretation: 30 Questions | 45 Minutes | 60 Marks
  • Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude: 40 Questions | 50 Minutes | 60 Marks
  • General/Economy/Banking Awareness: 60 Questions | 45 Minutes | 60 Marks

2. Descriptive Test

  • Total Marks: 50
  • Duration: 30 minutes
  • This section evaluates your communication skills through tasks such as:
    • Emails
    • Reports
    • Situation Analysis
    • Precis Writing

SBI PO Selection Process

The SBI PO 2025 selection process consists of three stages: Prelims, Mains, and Psychometric Test followed by Interview & Group Exercise. In the Prelims, candidates answering objective-type questions are shortlisted about 10 times the number of vacancies for the Mains. The Mains exam includes both objective and descriptive tests, after which around 3 times the number of vacancies are selected for the final stage. The final phase involves a Psychometric Test, Group Exercise, and Interview. Candidates who qualify at all stages will be considered for final selection as Probationary Officers in SBI.

Important Instruction to Remember while Downloading the SBI PO Mains Call letter

When downloading the SBI PO Call Letter, it is important to check that all the information mentioned on it is correct. Make sure to verify the exam venue and time to ensure they match your details. Keep the admit card safe to avoid any issues during the exam. Check that your photograph and signature on the call letter are clear. Before the exam, carefully read all the guidelines provided on the admit card and make sure to follow them to avoid any trouble on the exam day.

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70+ Quantitative Aptitude Questions For IBPS RRB Exam

The Quantitative Aptitude section plays a vital role in the IBPS RRB Exam, evaluating a candidate’s numerical ability and problem-solving skills. Key topics covered include arithmetic, data interpretation, number series, and quadratic equations. A strong command over these areas significantly boosts a candidate’s overall score. Given its importance, mastering Quantitative Aptitude is not just essential for the IBPS RRB exam, but also highly beneficial for other upcoming banking and competitive exams.

IBPS RRB Quantitative Aptitude Questions

Directions (01-05): Read the passage given below and answer the following questions.

Three products are available on a shop – Pastry, Patty & Cake. Ratio of number of people who bought only Cake, only Pastry & only Patty is 5:8:4 respectively. People who bought both Cake and Pastry but not Patty are 50% of people who bought both Pastry and Patty but not Cake. People who bought both Cake and Patty but not Pastry are 50% more than people who bought both Cake and Pastry but not Patty. People who bought all three products together are 10% of people who bought only Cake. Total number of people who bought Cake is 800 and total number of people who bought Patty is 800.

Q01. Find total number of people who bought both Cake and Pastry.

(a) 100

(b) 150

(c) 120

(d) 90

(e) 80

Q02. People who bought both Pastry and Patty but not Cake are what percent of people who bought only Cake?

(a) 50%

(b) 30%

(c) 20%

(d) 40%

(e) 60%

Q03. Find total number of people who bought only Pastry are how much more than number of people who bought both Cake and Patty but not Pastry.

(a) 650

(b) 670

(c) 750

(d) 720

(e) 690

Q04. Find total number of people who bought Pastry.

(a) 1050

(b) 1100

(c) 1150

(d) 1000

(e) 1200

Q05. Find total number of people who bought at least two products.

(a) 520

(b) 580

(c) 550

(d) 460

(e) 500

Directions (06-10): Solve the given quadratic equations and mark the correct option based on your answer.

(a) x > y

(b) x ≥ y

(c) x < y

(d) x ≤ y

(e) x = y or no relation can be established between x and y.

Q06.    I. x² + x – 12 = 0

II. y² + 2y-15 = 0

 

Q07.    I. 6x² – 5x + 1 = 0

II. 3y² + 8y = 3

 

Q08.    I. 12x² – 7x + 1 = 0

II. 6y² – 5y + 1 = 0

 

Q09.    I. x² + 7x + 10 = 0

II. 2y² + 5y + 2 = 0

 

Q10.    I. x² – 2x = 15

II. y² + 5y + 4 = 0

Q11.    Average of four numbers is 64. If 3 is added to first number, multiplied to second, subtracted from the third and divided to last one then all the values are same. Find the difference between 2nd highest and the smallest number?

(a) 45

(b) 35

(c) 42

(d) 39

(e) 32

Q12. A container is full of mixture (40% water) of milk and water. A part of this mixture is replaced by another containing 81% milk and now the percentage of milk was found to be 74%. Find quantity of mixture replaced.

(a)1/3

(b)2/3

(c)2/5

(d)3/5

(e) None of these

Q13.  3 years ago, ratio of age of A and B is 3:1. If the present age of B is  of the present age of A then what is the difference between their present ages (in years)?

(a) 25

(b) 30

(c) 35

(d) 40

(e) 45

Q14. A, B and C started a business by investing in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5. After 3 months, A withdrew an amount which is equal to  of total amount invested by B and C together. If A got Rs. 702 at end of year, then find the difference between the profit share of B and C?

(a) Rs. 280

(b) None of these

(c) Rs. 320

(d) Rs. 240

(e) Rs. 300

Q15. Find the probability of 7 letters word that can be formed from the letters of the word ‘CASTING’ so that vowels always come together.

(a)2/7

(b)19/42

(c)4/15

(d)10/21

(e)4/14

Directions (16-20): Study the charts given below and answer the following questions.

The given bar chart shows percentage of students in two sections A & B who have scored different range of marks in an exam.

GA Capsule for SBI Clerk Mains 2025, Download PDF_15.1

Note:

(i) Total number of students who have appeared in exam from section A & B is 200 & 150 respectively

(ii) Marks obtained less than 35% will be considered as failed.

Q16. Find the difference between number of students failed in both the sections?

(a) 30

(b) 25

(c) 28

(d) 35

(e) 40

Q17. Find the total number of students in both the sections who have scored at least 50% but not 60% or more?

(a) 60

(b) 75

(c) 50

(d) 80

(e) 70

Q18. Number of students who have scored less than 60% in section A is what percent of students who have scored less than 80% in section B?

(a) 91

(b) 93

(c) 80%

(d) 77

(e) 88%

Q19. Students who have scored 35% or more but less than 80% are what percent of total students in both the sections?

(a) 69

(b) 70%

(c) 71

(d) 73%

(e) 75

Q20. There are total 280 students in section A and 220 students in sections B. If 3 out of every 4 students who did not appear in exam from Section A can pass the exam & 6 out of every 7 students can pass the exam from section B then find the total possible number of failed students in both sections? (if all students have appeared in exam).

(a) 85

(b) 90

(c) 88

(d) 82

(e) 93

Directions (21-25): Find the wrong number in the following number series:

Q21.    5,             7,             18,          63,          268,        1365,      8226

(a) 7

(b) 5

(c) 18

(d) 63

(e) 268

Q22.    136,        148,        168,        198,        240,        296,        366

(a) 136

(b)148

(c) 198

(d) 240

(e) 366

Q23.    268,        280,        294,        311,        333,        361,        402

(a) 311

(b) 361

(c) 402

(d) 280

(e) 294

Q24.    540,        515,        504,        492,        474,        438,        348

(a) 540

(b) 515

(c) 492

(d) 474

(e) 348

Q25.  292,   291,    295,    268,     284,    161,    195

(a) 292

(b) 284

(c) 291

(d) 268

(e) 161

Direction (26–30): The given graph shows the number of students studying in three different classes (Class VI, Class VII & Class VIII) of six different schools. Read the information carefully and answer the following questions.

GA Capsule for SBI Clerk Mains 2025, Download PDF_16.1 

Q26. Total number of students in school D in all three classes are what percent of total number of students in all three classes in school F?

(a) 40%

(b) 50%

(c) 60%

(d) 75%

(e) 100%

Q27. Total number of class VI students in school A, B & C together is how much more or less than the total number of class VIII students in school D, E & B together?

(a) 40

(b) 50

(c) 30

(d) 80

(e) 60

Q28. Find the average number of class VII students in all the schools except F.

(a) 36

(b) 32

(c) 30

(d) 38

(e) 40

Q29. Find the ratio of total number of students in school A to total number of class VIII students in school C, D & E together.

(a) 3 : 4

(b)1:1

(c) 2  : 3

(d) 3 : 2

(e) 4 : 3

Q30. Which of the following schools has highest number of students studying in these three classes?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) All of the above

Directions (31-35): What will come in place of (?) in the following questions?

Q31. 1620 ÷ 45 + 8836 ÷ (47)^2 = ?

(a) 50

(b) 42

(c) 48

(d) 40

(e) 45

Q32. (12)^2 + (29)^2 – {(425 + 655) ÷ (6)^3} = ?

(a) 1030

(b) 980

(c) 1065

(d) 1090

(e) 1025

Q33. 3875 ÷ (5)^3 = ? – {(24)^2 ÷ 48}

(a) 45

(b) 49

(c) 41

(d) 47

(e) 43

Q34.  GA Capsule for SBI Clerk Mains 2025, Download PDF_17.1

(a) 662

(b) 735

(c) 679

(d) 701

(e) 726

Q35. (? ÷ 18) x 6 = 320% of 60

(a) 560

(b) 568

(c) 554

(d) 576

(e) 578

Q36. Anurag can complete a piece of work in 280 days and Rohit is 33 more efficient than Anurag. Anurag and Veer together can complete the same piece of work in 180 days. If all three-start working together, then find in how many days the work will be completed?

(a) 116 days

(b) 138 days

(c) 134 days

(d) 102 days

(e) None of the above.

Q37. Anurag can cover a km in 10 minutes and Dharam can cover a km in 15 minutes. If they both participated in a race and Anurag defeated Dharam by 200m, then find the length of race.

(a) 500m

(b) 600m

(c) 800m

(d) 400m

(e) 300m

Q38. Cost price of 10 articles is equal to marked price of 8 articles and when shopkeeper sells an article at 20% discount then he earns Rs.48 less than the amount he earned when he sells an article at 12% discount. Find cost price of the article.

(a) Rs.560

(b) Rs.540

(c) Rs.420

(d) Rs.480

(e) Rs.500

Q39. Ramesh purchased 4kg rice & 5 kg wheat for Rs.180 and Suresh purchased 2kg rice & 15kg wheat for Rs.290. Then, find per kg price of wheat is what percent of per kg price of rice?

(a) 64%

(b) 90%

(c) 75%

(d) 82%

(e) 60%

Q40. A spherical ball is melted to form 63 identical cylindrical vessels. If radius of each cylindrical vessel is  of radius of spherical ball and height of each cylindrical vessel is 3cm less than radius of each cylindrical vessel, then find radius of spherical ball.

(a) 21cm

(b) 14cm

(c) 35cm

(d) 49cm

(e) 42cm

Directions (41-45): Find what will come in place of (?) in the following number series.

Q41. 987, 987, 980, 972, 909, ?

(a) 875

(b) 890

(c) 885

(d) 895

(e) 880

Q42. 564, 142, 73, 76, 156, ?

(a) 659

(b) 669

(c) 639

(d) 629

(e) 649

Q43. 842, 824, 788, 734, 662, ?

(a) 572

(b) 571

(c) 569

(d) 568

(e) 570

Q44. 11, 12, 26, 81, 328, ?

(a) 1465

(b) 1555

(c) 1765

(d) 1645

(e) 1865

Q45. 5, 7, 17, 56, 231, ?

(a) 1166

(b) 1176

(c) 1146

(d) 1136

(e) 1156

Q46. A shopkeeper earns profit of 16 after selling a book at 12.5% discount on the printed price. Then, find the ratio of the cost price & printed price of the book?

(a) 1 : 2

(b) 2 : 3

(c) 3 : 4

(d) 4 : 5

(e) 5 : 6

Q47. A container contains two liquids A and B in the ratio 8 : 5 .When 13 liters of mixture is drawn off and is completely replaced with liquid B, then the ratio of A and B in the container becomes 1 : 1. How many liter of liquid A was in the container initially ?

(a) 128/3 liter

(b) 117 liter

(c) 134/3 liter

(d) 121/3 liter

(e) 130 liter

Q48. A cricketer had a certain average of runs in 80 innings. In his 81st inning, he is bowled out for no score, due to which his average falls by 1 run. Then, find his new average of runs?

(a) 50

(b) 60

(c) 70

(d) 80

(e) 90

Q49. Vikash and Mohit started from point A towards point Q. Distance between A and Q is 9 km. If Mohit starts after 4 min., then he will meet Vikash 1 km away from point Q at a time when Vikash is returning towards point A after reaching point Q and Vikash can cover 1 km in 6 min. find speed of Mohit in km/min.

(a) 1/7

(b) 1/8

(c) 1/9

(d) 1/6

(e) 1/12

Q50. A Boat is moving in downstream and speed of Boat in still water is 5 times speed of current. After 16 km due to technical problem speed of boat (in still water) reduced by 20 % and it cover 40 km distance with this speed. If average speed of whole journey is  km/min, then find speed of current.

(a)  4 1/8 km/hr

(b)  2 7/10 km/hr

(c) 4 km/hr

(d) 5 km/hr

(e)  4 3/8 km/hr                  

Direction (51-55): Line graph given below shows percentage of students who like PUBG in five different colleges and table shows difference between students who like PUBG and ‘Counter strike’ in these five colleges. Each of the students in these colleges likes only one of these two games. Read the data carefully and answer the question.

NOTE-: Students in each college either like PUBG or Counter Strike

GA Capsule for SBI Clerk Mains 2025, Download PDF_18.1

Colleges Difference between students who like PUBG and ‘Counter strike’
P 400
Q 180
R 672
S 720
T 1440

Q51. Find total number of students in the colleges P & T together?

(a) 5600

(b) 5400

(c) 5200

(d) 5000

(e) 4800

Q52.  Total students who like ‘Counter strike’ in Q are what percent less than total students who like same game in R?

(a) 23

(b) 23

(c) 25

(d) 27

(e) None of these

Q53. Find average number of students in R, S & T?

(a) 2800

(b) 3200

(c) 3600

(d) 3000

(e) 3400

Q54.  Find the ratio of students who like PUBG in P to that of in T?

(a) 10 : 23

(b) 10 : 19

(c) 10 : 17

(d) 10 : 13

(e) 10 : 21

Q55. Total students in P & Q together are what percent more than total students in S?

(a) 12 1/2 %

(b) 14%

(c) 16 2/3 %

(d) 16 1/3 %

(e) 15%

Directions (56-60): In each of the following questions two equations are given. Solve these equations and give answer:

(a) if x ≥ y, i.e. x is greater than or equal to y

(b) if x > y, i.e. x is greater than y

(c) if x ≤ y, i.e. x is less than or equal to y

(d) if x < y, i.e. x is less than y

(e)  or no relation can be established between x and y 

Q56. I. 6x² + 17x + 5 = 0

II. 2y² + 21y + 49 = 0

Q57. I. x² – 8x + 15 =0

II. 2y² – 5y – 3 = 0

Q58. I. 5x² + 11x + 2 = 0

II. 4y² + 13y + 3 = 0

Q59. I. 4x + 2y = 4

II. 3x + 5y = 3

Q60. I. 6x² + x- 15 =0

II. 4y² – 24y + 35 = 0

Q61. A and B entered into a partnership business with investment of Rs. 1300 & Rs. 500 respectively. After six months, C joined them with investment of Rs. 1800. At the end of a year, the profit share of C is Rs. 360. Find the difference between profit share of A and B

(a) 480 Rs.
(b) 280 Rs.
(c) 400 Rs.
(d) 320 Rs.
(e) 180 Rs.

Q62. Five years ago, the average age of A and B was 15 years. The ratio of present age of A and C is 6 : 5 respectively. If B is four years younger than C, then find the sum of present age of B and C (in years).
(a) 34 years
(b) 32 years
(c) 36 years
(d) 24 years
(e) 40 years

Q63. The average weight of eight people is X kg. Two new people joined them with total weight of 151 kg and average weight of all people increased by 𝟑/𝟐
kg. If the weight of lightest people out of two people joined is X-5 kg, the find the difference between weight these two people who joined later.
(a) 27 kg
(b) 21 kg
(c) 15 kg
(d) 25 kg
(e) 22 kg

Q64. A gets 40% marks in an exam and he received 40 less marks than passing marks. B gets 70% marks in same exam and received 20 more marks than passing marks. If C gets 65% marks in the same exam, then find the difference between marks received by A and C in the exam.
(a) 30
(b) 60
(c) 40
(d) 25
(e) 50

Q65. A man invested Rs. P in scheme A on compound interest at rate of 10% p.a. for two years and he invested Rs. (P+500) in scheme B on simple interest at rate of 12% p.a. for same period of time. If the interest received by man from scheme A is Rs. 150 less than that of from scheme B, then find amount invested in scheme B.

(a) 1250 Rs.
(b) 1000 Rs.
(c) 1500 Rs.
(d) 2000 Rs.
(e) 2500 Rs.

Directions (66-70): Find the wrong number in the given number series

Q66. 6400, 400, 50, 12.5, 6.25, 3, 12.5
(a) 400
(b) 12.5
(c) 6.25
(d) 3
(e) 50

Q67. 34, 32, 36, 30, 38, 48, 40
(a) 34
(b) 32
(c) 48
(d) 36
(e) 30

Q68. 43, 47, 56, 72, 108, 133, 182
(a) 72
(b) 56
(c) 43
(d) 47
(e) 108

Q69. 12, 28, 60, 108, 172, 256, 348
(a) 12
(b) 28
(c) 60
(d) 256
(e) 108

Q60. 3, 7, 27, 112, 565, 3396, 23779
(a) 7
(b) 3
(c) 27
(d) 565
(e) 23779

Solutions
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
b d a c e e b d d e
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
b b b b a b a e c a
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
b e b b e e e a b e
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
d b e a d e b d a a
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
c d a d a c a d a c
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
a b d e c b a e b d
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
d c d e c d c e d a

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Vaibhav Suryavanshi Becomes Youngest Player in IPL to Hit 100

Vaibhav Suryavanshi has made history by becoming the youngest player ever to score a century in the Indian Premier League (IPL). At just 14 years of age, he achieved this incredible milestone while playing for the Rajasthan Royals against the Gujarat Titans on April 28, 2025. Not only did he become the youngest centurion, but he also smashed the fastest century by an Indian in IPL history, reaching his hundred in a blistering 35 balls. This innings has sent shockwaves through the cricket world, with many calling him the future of Indian cricket.

Background and Early Achievements

  • Born on 27 March 2011 in Samastipur, Bihar, Vaibhav began playing cricket at four and made his first-class debut for Bihar at 12
  • He smashed a 58-ball century against Australia U-19s in Chennai, setting the record for the fastest youth Test hundred by an Indian
  • Later in 2024, he became the youngest-ever IPL signing at 13 when Rajasthan Royals acquired him for ₹1.1 crore

Significance of Vaibhav Suryavanshi’s Achievement

Youngest to 100: At 14 years and 32 days, he is now the youngest IPL centurion ever, showcasing extraordinary maturity in shot selection and temperament.

Inspiration for Emerging Regions: His success story highlights the growth of cricket infrastructure and talent development in Bihar and similar regions.

Benchmark for Future Stars: This record underscores the evolving landscape of youth cricket, where age barriers are continually being challenged.

GA Capsule for SBI Clerk Mains 2025, Download PDF_3.1

The impact of Vaibhav’s achievement goes beyond personal records. It signals the rise of new cricketing hubs like Bihar, a state that has often been overlooked in the national cricketing structure. His success story is a testament to the expanding reach of cricket in India, showing that talent can now emerge from any corner of the country. His fearless approach and maturity at the crease have drawn praise from Rajasthan Royals coach Rahul Dravid, who called him “one of the most promising young talents he has ever seen.”

Vaibhav Suryavanshi’s 35-ball century will be remembered not just as a statistical record but as the birth of a new era in IPL and Indian cricket. His journey has only just begun, but the world already knows his name.

SIDBI Grade A, B Final Result 2025 Out, Download Result PDF

The Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has released the SIDBI Grade A and B Final Result 2025 on 28 April 2025. Candidates who appeared for the recruitment process can now check their results through the official website. The results have been published in PDF format, making it easy for aspirants to find their roll numbers. Candidates are advised to download the result PDF and review their selection status carefully.

SIDBI Grade A, B Final Result 2025 Out

SIDBI has published the final list of candidates who have been selected for Grade A and B posts, along with a separate list of waitlisted candidates. This announcement brings clarity to all aspirants who have been eagerly awaiting their results. Candidates who find their roll number in the selection list have successfully secured their positions, while those in the waitlist may still have an opportunity depending on future vacancies. It is important for all candidates to read the result notification thoroughly for further instructions.

SIDBI Final Result 2025: Overview

Candidates can get an overview of the SDBI Grade A, B Final Result 2025 through the table given below:-

SIDBI Grade A, B Final Result 2025
Organization Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
Post SIDBI Grade A and B
Vacancy 72
Category Result (Final)
Status Released
Result Release Date 28 April 2025
Selection Process Phase I, Phase II, and Interview
Official Website www.sidbi.in
WhatsApp Official Channel Join WhatsApp Channel
Telegram Official Channel Join Telegram Channel

SIDBI Grade A & B Result 2025 Download Link

The SIDBI Grade A & B Result 2025 for the interview round is now available. Candidates who take part in the selection process can check their results from the result PDFs attached below. A direct link is provided below to help you easily see if you’ve been selected or waitlisted.

SIDBI Grade A Final Result 2025 (Selected Candidates)

SIDBI Grade A Final Result 2025 (Waitlisted Candidates)

Have You Cleared the SIDBI Exam 2025? Share Your Success Story!!

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How to Download SIDBI Grade A and B Final Result 2025?

To download the SIDBI Grade A and B Final Result 2025, aspirants can follow these simple steps:

  •  Open the official website of SIDBI: www.sidbi.in
  •  Navigate to the Careers section, typically found on the homepage or in the menu.
  • Look for the notification titled SIDBI Grade A and B Final Result 2025 under the latest updates or recruitment announcements.
  • Select the provided link to open the result PDF.
  • The SIDBI Grade A and B Final Result 2025 will be displayed on the screen. Verify your details.
  • Download the result as a PDF and take a printout for future reference.

SIDBI Grade A, B Cut Off

The cut off for the SIDBI Grade A and B Exam 2025 is the minimum score you need to pass in order to move to the next stage of the selection process. The cut off depends on factors like the number of vacancies, the difficulty of the exam, and how well candidates performed overall. If your score is equal to or higher than the cut-off, you will be finally selected. Make sure to check the official cut off marks to know if you’ve qualified. You can check the previous year cut off marks with the link provided below in the related posts table.

Related Posts
SIDBI Grade A Previous Year Paper SIDBI Grade A Salary
SIDBI Grade A, B Syllabus SIDBI Grade A, B Cut Off

FCI Syllabus and Exam Pattern 2025 for All Posts

The Food Corporation of India (FCI) conducts recruitment exams for various posts such as Assistant Grade 3, Junior Engineer, Stenographer, and others. Candidates preparing for the upcoming FCI Recruitment 2025 must have a clear understanding of the latest syllabus and exam pattern to plan their preparation effectively. Knowing the detailed subject-wise topics and marking scheme is crucial to cracking the exam with a good score. This article provides complete insights into the FCI Syllabus and Exam Pattern 2025 for all posts to help candidates prepare in a structured way.

FCI Syllabus & Exam Pattern 2025

FCI Syllabus and exam pattern 2025 for different posts under Categories II, III, and IV are discussed below. Category III covers assistant-level posts comprising AG-III (General), AG-III (Accounts), AG-III (Depot), JE Civil, JE Electrical & Mechanical, Steno Grade II, and AG-III Hindi. Here, candidates can check the complete FCI Syllabus and Exam Pattern.

FCI Syllabus 2025: Overview

To make sure that all the important points are provided at a single place we have mentioned below an overview of the FCI Syllabus 2025.

FCI Syllabus 2025: Overview
Organization Food Corporation of India
Exam name FCI Exam 2025
Post All Posts
Vacancy
Category Syllabus
Application Mode Online
Selection Process for FCI Manager Online Exam and Interview
Selection Process for FCI Assistant Grade 3 Phase 1 and Phase 2
Job Location Based on the zone selected
Official Website @fci.gov.in
WhatsApp Official Channel Join WhatsApp Channel
Telegram Official Channel Join Telegram Channel

FCI Syllabus For Assistant Grade 3

FCI will conduct the online exam for Assistant Grade 3 posts in two phases. The Phase 1 exam will consist of 100 questions, each carrying one mark, for a total of 100 marks. For detailed information on the complete FCI Syllabus for Assistant Grade 3, refer to the link provided below.

FCI Syllabus For AG 3
Subject     FCI Syllabus 2025 Topic-Wise
Reasoning Ability

Arrangement & pattern

Syllogism

Analogy

Inequality

Puzzles & Sitting Arrangements

Direction & Distance

Blood Relation

English Language

Basic Grammar

Error Detection

Reading Comprehension

Cloze Test

Fill in the Blanks

Vocabulary

Antonyms/Synonyms

Para Jumble

Sentence rearrangement

Numerical Aptitude

Basic Calculation

Quadratic Equation

Time & Work

Speed, Time & Distance

Simple Interest & Compound Interest

Data Interpretation

Number Series

Arithmetic Problems

General Awareness

History

Polity

Economics

Geography

General Science

Current Affairs

FCI Exam Pattern Phase I For Assistant Grade 3

The online exam of FCI Assistant for phase 1 will be common for all the posts i.e. depot, accounts, general, technical, Hindi (AG), and Stenographer. The test structure for the Prelims Online exam is as follows

FCI Assistant Phase 1 Grade 3 Exam Pattern 2025
 Name of the Test  No of Questions  No of Marks  Duration
 English Language 25 25  15 mins
 Reasoning Ability 25 25  15 mins
Numerical Aptitude 25 25  15 mins
General Studies* 25 25  15 mins
 Total  100  100  60 mins

* General Studies: History, Geography, Economy, General Science up to Class 8th level. (20 questions) and Current Affairs (5 questions)

FCI Syllabus Category II (Manager)

The syllabus given below is for phase 1, which is common for all the posts falling under category II. In phase 1, there will be three sections, i.e. Reasoning Ability, Quantitative Aptitude, and English Language. In the table given below, we have provided the section-wise syllabus covering all the topics. Candidates must read the syllabus carefully to avoid skipping any topic.

Reasoning Ability Quantitative Aptitude English Language
Direction & Distance Simplification Reading comprehension
Blood Relation Approximation Fillers
Syllogism Missing Series Cloze Test
Alphanumeric Series Wrong Series Phrase Replacement
Inequality Quadratic Equation Odd Sentence Out cum Para Jumbled
Coding-Decoding Number system, LCM & HCF Inference, Sentence Completion
Clocks & Calendars Data Interpretation (Bar, Line, Pie, Tabular) Connectors
Semantic Analogy Average, Ratio, Percentage, Profit & Loss Paragraph Conclusion
Odd One Out Simple Interest & Compound Interest Phrasal Verb-Related Questions
Venn Diagram Problems on Ages Error Detection/Sentence-based Error
Circular/ Triangular/ Square/ Rectangular Seating arrangement Time & Work, Pipes & Cisterns Word Usage/Vocab-based Questions
Linear row/Double row arrangement Speed, Distance & Time Sentence Improvement
Floor based Puzzle Probability Error Correction
Box based Puzzle Mensuration Idioms & Phrases
Day/ Month/ Year/ Age-based Puzzle Permutation & Combination Word Swap
Comparison/ Categorised/ Uncertain Puzzle Mixture & Allegation Misspelt
Statement & Assumption Partnership Word Rearrangement
Alphabets based Questions Boat & Stream Column-based Sentences & Fillers

FCI Exam Pattern Phase II For Assistant Grade 3

The Phase II exam for Assistant Grade 3 posts in FCI is conducted post the main examination. It consists of Paper-I and Paper-II depending on the post applied for. Paper-I is common for all posts and tests candidates on topics like General English, General Awareness, Reasoning, and Numerical Ability. Paper-II is specific to technical and depot-related posts and focuses on relevant domain knowledge. Each paper is objective in nature, and candidates must complete the exam within the stipulated time. Scoring well in Phase II is essential for final selection.

Note:

Paper I: For all the posts except Steno posts

Paper II: For all the posts except General & Steno posts

Paper III: For Steno posts only

  FCI 2025 Exam Pattern For Phase 2
Paper Section No. of Qs. Max. Marks Duration
Paper I
English Language 25 25 20 minutes
Reasoning Ability 25 25 20 minutes
Numerical Aptitude 25 25 20 minutes
General Studies:
History, Geography, Economy: 25 qs.
General Science: 10 qs.
Current Affairs: 05 qs.
Computer: 05 qs.
45 45 30 minutes
Total 120 120 90 minutes
Paper II Post Specific (Professional Knowledge) 60 120 60 minutes
Paper III Only for Steno 120 120 90 minutes

FCI Syllabus Post-Wise (Phase II)

 Below is the post-wise FCI Syllabus, which is different for all the posts. The specific post paper will be of 120 marks, carrying 60 questions. Keep reading to explore the syllabus specific to each post.

FCI Syllabus For Accounts Manager Post

Commercial Laws –

  • Contract Act
  • Companies Act
  • Sales of Goods Act
  • Negotiable Instrument Act
  • Consumer Protection Act
  • RTI Act

Financial Accounting –

  • Analysis of Financial statement
  • Budgeting & Budgetary control
  • Working Capital Management
  • Capital Budgeting & Ratio Analysis

Auditing –

  • Auditing Concepts and Methods
  • Internal & External Audit of Companies

Basic Computers-

  • Operating System
  • Browsers
  • Email
  • Memory(Internal, External, portable)
  • Chats
  • MS Office (Word, PowerPoint, Excel)
  • Networks

Taxation –

  • Income Tax, including the filing of the return, TDS, Advance Tax, etc
  • Goods & Services Tax.

FCI Syllabus For Technical Manager

Biotechnology-

  • Microbes: Beneficial & Harmful
  • Genetic Engineering,
  • Biotechnological Principles
  • Economic Biotechnology
  • Pathogens & Control
  • Recent trends

Chemistry–

  • Physical Chemistry: Structure of Atoms, Chemical Bonding, Radioactivity
  • Inorganic Chemistry, Periodic Table, Basics, Metals & Non-metals
  • Organic Chemistry, Basics of alkanes, alkenes, alkynes, alcohols, aldehydes and acids
  • Biochemistry (Carbohydrates, Proteins & Fats)

Entomology

  • Basic Entomology
  • Economic Entomology
  • Beneficial and harmful insects
  • Integrated Pest Management (IPM)
  • Storage Grain Insect pest
  • Vertebrate Pests

Agriculture-

  • Statistics of Indian Agriculture (Cereals & Pulses)
  • Food & Agriculture Microbiology
  • Nutrition (Animal & Plant)
  • Postharvest care of Cereals & Pulses
  • Food grain Protection
  • Agriculture Extension

Food-

  • PFA Act, 1964
  • Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006/Food Safety and Standards Regulations 2011
  • Right to Information Act, 2005

FCI Syllabus For Electrical/ Mechanical Engineering Manager

  • Thermodynamics
  • Heat Transfer, Refrigeration, and Air-conditioning
  • Theory of Machines, Machine Design
  • Strength of Materials, Engineering Materials
  • Production Engineering, Industrial Engineering
  • Production Planning and Control
  • Material Handling
  • Electrical Circuits, Network theorems, EM Theory
  • Strength of Materials, Engineering Materials
  • Electrostatics, Material Science (Electric Materials), Electrical Measurements,
  • Elements of Computation Power Apparatus and Systems (Power System: Power generation; Thermal, Hydro, Nuclear & Solar power production, and Transmissions)
  • Electromechanics, Control Systems, Electronics and Communications, Estimation and costing, Use of computers

FCI Syllabus For Civil Engineering Manager

  • Engineering Materials & Construction Technology-
  • Selection of site for the construction
  • Engineering Materials & Construction Technology
  • Planning and orientation of buildings, acoustics
  • Ventilation and air conditioning
  • Building and highway materials, Stones, Bricks timber, Lime, Cement Mortar, Plain and reinforced Cement Concrete, Bitumen, and Asphalt.

Building Materials-

  • Stone, Lime, Glass, Plastics, Steel, FRP, Ceramics, Aluminium, Fly Ash, Basic Admixtures,
  • Timber, Bricks and Aggregates Classification, properties and selection criteria, Cement, etc

Construction Practice, Planning, and Management-

  • Construction Planning
  • Equipment, site investigation
  • Tendering Process and Contract Management
  • Quality Control, Productivity, Operation Cost
  • Land acquisition, Labor safety, and welfare

Surveying-

  • Surveying
  • Levelling, temporary and permanent adjustments of levels and Theodolite
  • Use of theodolite
  • Tachometry
  • Trigonometrically and Triangulation survey
  • Contours and contouring
  • Computations of areas and volumes

Soil/Geotechnical Engineering

  • Classification of soil
  • Field identification tests
  • Water content, specific gravity, voids ratio, porosity, Soil permeability, and its determination in the laboratory and field
  • Darcy’s law, Flow nets its Characteristics
  • Local and general shear failures
  • Plate load test
  • Stability of simple slopes

Highways and bridges-

  • Classification of road land width
  • Flexible pavements
  • WBM courses, sub-base, sand bitumen base course, crushed cement concrete base / sub-base course
  • Prime and tack coats
  • surface dressing
  • Asphaltic concrete, seal coats

Structural Analysis-

  • Strength of materials
  • Bending moments and shear force
  • Suspended Cables
  • Concepts and use of Computer-Aided Design

Design of steel structures-

  • Principles of working stress methods
  • Design of tension and compression members
  • Design of beams and beam-column connections, built-up sections, Girders, Industrial roofs
  • Principles of Ultimate Load Design

Design of Concrete and Masonry Structures

  • Principles of working stress methods
  • Design of tension and compression members
  • Design of beams and beam-column connections, built-up sections, Girders, Industrial roofs
  • Principles of Ultimate Load Design

Estimating, Costing and Valuation-

  • estimate, analysis of rates, earthwork
  • Brick, RCC work shuttering, Painting, Flooring, Plastering flexible pavements, Tube well, isolates and combined footings, Steel Truss, Piles, etc
  • Valuation- Value and cost, scrap value, salvage value, assessed value, sinking fund, depreciation and obsolescence, methods of valuation

FCI Category II Exam Pattern For Phase I

The FCI Manager (Category II) preliminary examination will be conducted in online mode. Candidates will have a duration of 60 minutes to complete the preliminary exam. There is a sectional timing of 20 minutes each. It consists of 3 sections with a total of 100 questions and a maximum score of 100 marks.

FCI Manager Exam Pattern 2025: Phase 1
Sections No. of Questions Max. Marks Time Duration
English Language 30 30 20 minutes
Reasoning Ability 35 35 20 minutes
Numerical Aptitude 35 35 20 minutes
Total 100 100 60 minutes

FCI Category II Exam Pattern For Phase-II

Under phase II, there will be a single paper for the Manager (General) and the Manager (Depot).  Paper 2 will be a post-specific exam and will be conducted for the Manager  (Electrical Mechanical Engineering), Manager (Civil Engineering), Manager (Technical), and Manager (Accounts). Candidates can check the FCI Category II exam pattern from the table given below

Number of Papers Post
One Paper Exam Paper I only Manager (General)
Manager (Depot)
Two Paper Exam Paper I and Paper II Manager (Accounts)
Manager (Technical)
Manager (Civil Engineering)
Manager  (Electrical Mechanical Engineering)
Paper III and Paper IV Manager (Hindi)

In the table given below, candidates can check the description of the exam patterns for the phase II exam.

FCI Manager (Category II) Phase II Exam Pattern 2025
Type of paper  Number Of Questions Maximum Marks Time Duration  
Paper – I 120 120 90 Minutes
Post specific Paper-II (in phase II) 60 120 90 Minutes
Paper III for the Post of Manager (Hindi) 120 120 90 Minutes
Paper-IV (Only for the Post of Manager (Hindi) 1 Passage for translation from Hindi to English
1 Precis Writing in English

1 Passage for translation from English to Hindi

1 essay in Hindi

30 marks each – A total of 120 marks 90 Minutes

 

IBPS RRB Clerk Syllabus 2025 and Exam Pattern For Prelims + Mains Exam

Candidates preparing for the IBPS RRB Clerk 2025 exam must be familiar with the updated syllabus and exam pattern for both the Prelims and Mains stages. The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has designed the exam to test candidates on key topics essential for the role of a Clerk in Regional Rural Banks. Understanding the IBPS RRB Clerk Syllabus 2025 and Exam Pattern is crucial to strategising the preparation effectively. Both stages of the exam require a solid grasp of reasoning ability, numerical ability, and overall time management skills.

IBPS RRB Clerk Syllabus 2025

The IBPS RRB Clerk Preliminary exam assesses candidates through two key sections: Reasoning and Numerical Ability, each containing 40 questions, with a total time limit of 45 minutes. The Mains exam, however, covers a broader range of subjects, including Reasoning, Numerical Ability, General Awareness, English or Hindi Language, and Computer Knowledge. It tests candidates on various topics such as logical puzzles, arithmetic problem-solving, data interpretation, current affairs, banking concepts, and computer fundamentals. To excel in the exam, candidates must adopt a strategic study approach to ensure thorough coverage of all topics.

IBPS RRB Office Assistant Syllabus 2025: Overview

The IBPS RRB Clerk Syllabus 2025 focuses mainly on two sections for the Prelims: Reasoning Ability and Numerical Ability. Candidates who qualify the Prelims will move on to the Mains, where additional sections like General Awareness, Computer Knowledge, and English or Hindi Language will be tested.

IBPS RRB Clerk (Office Assistant) Syllabus 2025
Organization Regional Rural Banks
Exam Name IBPS RRB 2025
Post Office Assistant (Clerk)
Category Syllabus
Selection Process Prelims & Mains
IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims Exam Date 30 August, 06 & 07 September 2025
IBPS RRB Clerk Mains Exam Date 09 November 2025
IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims Syllabus Reasoning Ability and Quantitative Aptitude
No. of Questions: IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims 80 Questions | 80 Marks
IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims Exam: Duration 45 Minutes
IBPS RRB Clerk Mains Syllabus Reasoning, Ability, Quantitative Aptitude, English/ Hindi, General Awareness, Computer Knowledge
No. of Questions: IBPS RRB Clerk Mains 200 Questions | 200 Marks
IBPS RRB Clerk Mains Exam: Duration 2 Hours
Negative Marking 1/4 On Each Wrong Answer
Official Website @ibps.in
WhatsApp Official Channel Join WhatsApp Channel

IBPS RRB Office Assistant Syllabus 2025 For Prelims Exam

The IBPS RRB Office Assistant Prelims Syllabus 2025 consists of two core sections: Reasoning Ability and Numerical Ability. The Reasoning section includes topics such as puzzles, seating arrangements, syllogisms and logical reasoning, while the Numerical Ability section covers simplification, number series, data interpretation, and basic arithmetic concepts. To succeed in the IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims Exam, candidates should focus on mastering these subjects. A strong grasp of Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude is essential for clearing the prelims stage. Below is a detailed topic-wise breakdown of the IBPS RRB Clerk Syllabus 2025 for the Preliminary exam.

IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims Syllabus 2025 for Reasoning Ability

The topics that a candidate has to cover in the Reasoning Ability section, as specified in the IBPS RRB Clerk Syllabus have been discussed in the table below along with their description.

IBPS RRB Clerk Syllabus 2025 For Reasoning Ability
Topics Description of Topics
Alphabet/ Number/ Symbol Series Identifying patterns and sequences involving alphabets, numbers, and symbols.
Inequality Solving equations to determine relationships between given elements.
Syllogism Analysing deductive reasoning involving two or more premises and a conclusion.
Order & Ranking Arranging elements based on given criteria like height, weight, rank, etc.
Coding-Decoding Deciphering codes based on given rules or patterns.
Direction-sense Determining directions (e.g., North, South, East, West) based on given information or clues.
Blood-Relation Understanding family relationships and blood ties between individuals.
Circular/ Triangular/ Rectangular/ Square Seating Arrangement Arranging elements in a circular, triangular, rectangular, or square formation based on given conditions.
Linear Seating Arrangement Arranging elements in a linear formation (e.g., in a row) based on given conditions.
Box Based Puzzle Solving puzzles where elements are placed in boxes according to given conditions.
Floor or Floor-flat based Based Puzzles Solving puzzles where elements are placed on different floors of a building according to given conditions.
Day/ Month/ Year-Based Puzzle Solving puzzles involving arranging elements based on specific days, months, or years.
Comparison/ Categorized/ Uncertain Puzzles Miscellaneous Solving miscellaneous puzzles involving comparison of elements, categorization, or dealing with uncertain information.

IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims Syllabus for Quantitative Aptitude

Aspirants can refer to the table below for the IBPS RRB Clerk Syllabus for Quantitative Aptitude including the topics and their description.

IBPS RRB Clerk Syllabus For Quantitative Aptitude
Topics Description of Topics
Simplification & Approximation Applying rules of BODMAS, simplifying square & cube roots, indices, fractions, percentages, etc.
Number Series Identifying patterns in sequences of numbers, solving missing or wrong number series.
Inequality Solving linear equations, quadratic equations, and comparing quantities.
Arithmetic Performing arithmetic operations including ratio and proportion, percentage, number systems, HCF and LCM, averages, age-related problems, partnership, mixture and alligations, simple interest, compound interest, time and work, pipe and cistern, profit & loss, discount, speed time distance, boat and stream problems, train problems, mensuration (2D and 3D), probability, permutation and combination, etc.
Data Interpretation Analyzing and interpreting data presented in various forms, including tables, pie charts, line graphs, bar graphs, mixed data sets, and caselets.

IBPS RRB Office Assistant Syllabus 2025 For Mains Exam

The IBPS RRB Clerk Syllabus for Mains includes the following subjects: Reasoning Ability, Quantitative Aptitude, English/Hindi Language, and Computer Knowledge. To get the bifurcation of IBPS RRB Clerk Mains Syllabus topics section-wise, aspirants can refer to the section below.

IBPS RRB Clerk Syllabus For Mains
Subject Topics

Reasoning Ability

Reasoning Ability, Direction / Coded-Direction, Inequality / Coded Inequality, Data Sufficiency (Two or Three statements), Circular/ Triangular/ Rectangular/ Square Seating Arrangement – Linear or Direction with Linear Seating Arrangement, Statement and Assumptions, Cause and Effect, Strength of Argument, Blood Relation / Coded-Blood-Relation, Coding-Decoding / Coded Coding-Decoding – Resultant and Coded Series, Input-Output or Coded Input-Output, Box-Based Puzzles – Floor or Floor-Flat Based Puzzles – Comparison/ Categorized/ Uncertain/ Blood-Relation-based Puzzles – Day/ Month/ Year/Age-Based Puzzle, Statement and Inference, Course of Action, Statement and Conclusion

Quantitative Aptitude

Approximation: BODMAS, Square & Cube, Square & cube root, Indices, fraction, percentage etc., Inequality: Quadratic equation, Quantity comparison, Statement based Quadratic equation, Probability, Mensuration 2D and 3D, Number Series: Missing Number series, Wrong number series, Double Pattern series, Statement based series, Data Interpretation: Table DI, Missing Table DI, Pie chart DI, Line chart DI, Bar chart DI, Mixed DI, Caselet, Radar DI, Arithmetic DI; Data Sufficiency: Two Statement and Three statements, Permutation and combination, Algebra, Arithmetic, Ratio and Proportion, Percentage, Number System and HCF and LCM, Average, Age, Partnership, Mixture and Alligation, Simple Interest, Compound Interest, Profit & Loss and Discount, Time and Work, Pipe and Cistern, Speed Time Distance, Boat and Stream

General Awareness

Current Affairs, International Current Affairs, Economy, Financial Awareness, Ranks and Reports, Science News, Static Awareness, State Current Affairs, Banking Awareness, Sports News, Govt. Schemes/ Apps, Defence News, Obituaries

English Language

Reading Comprehension: Conventional and comprehensive, Phrase rearrangement, Word swap: 3 words swap, 4 words swap, Word rearrangement, Match the column: 2 columns, 3 columns, Connectors – Starters – Fillers: Double Sentence Blanks, Single Blanks, Double Blanks – Word usage – Sentence-based, Error: find the correct one, find the incorrect one – Phrase replacement – Spelling error – Error correction, Idioms and phrases: Idioms and phrases usage, Idioms and phrases fillers, Cloze test: Fillers, Replacement, Sentence Rearrangement: One fixed, Conventional, One-word inference

Hindi

अपठित गद्यांश, समानार्थक और विलोम शब्द, रिक्त स्थान, गद्यांश में रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति, वाक्य में त्रुटि, शब्द त्रुटी या वर्तनी त्रुटी, वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द, मुहावरे – लोकोक्तियाँ

Computer Knowledge

Fundamentals of Computer [History, Types, etc.], Generation of Computer, Hardware & Software [Operating System, Types of Software, Compiler, Interpreter, etc.], Input & Output Device; Memory; Number System [Binary Number, Conversion, etc.], Computer Language, Computer Network [TCP & OSI Model, Protocol, Topology, Methods of Communication, Networking Device and Components], Introduction of Internet – Internet’s Keywords – Use of Internet [Internet Protocol, E-mail, Chatting, E-Commerce, Internet Browser & its shortcut key, etc.], Network & Data Security [Firewall, Virus, Warm, Malware, Trojan Horse, Key logger, Spyware, Hacking, Phishing, Sniffing, Internet Security, Antivirus, User: Identification, Authentication, Biometric, etc.], Cyber Crime & Cyber Security, Multimedia- its components & Uses [Audio, Video, Streaming, Animation, Adobe Flash, etc.], Introduction of MS Window, MS Office & its application [MS Word, MS PowerPoint, MS Excel – Uses & Shortcut keys], Computer Shortcut keys, Computer Abbreviations

IBPS RRB Clerk Exam Pattern For Prelims

Understanding the exam pattern is crucial for candidates preparing for the IBPS RRB Clerk Preliminary Exam. The prelims consist of two sections designed to test the candidates’ reasoning and numerical skills. Below are the key features of the exam pattern:

  • The exam comprises two sections: Reasoning Ability and Quantitative Aptitude.
  • Each section consists of 40 questions, carrying 40 marks, making a total of 80 marks for the exam.
  • A total time duration of 45 minutes is allocated, with a sectional time limit for each part.
  • A negative marking system is in place, deducting 0.25 marks for every incorrect answer.
  • Candidates must clear both the sectional and overall cut-off to qualify for the next stage.
IBPS RRB Clerk Prelims Exam Pattern
 Section No. of Questions Marks Duration
Reasoning 40 40 25 minutes
Quantitative Aptitude 40 40 20 minutes
Total 80 80 45 minutes

IBPS RRB Clerk Exam Pattern For Mains

The important parameters for the IBPS RRB Clerk Mains Exam Pattern are as follows:

  • The exam consists of five sections: Reasoning Ability, Quantitative Aptitude, General Awareness, English/Hindi Language, and Computer Knowledge.
  • The total number of questions asked will be 200 for a maximum of 200 marks.
  • The exam has a sectional timing, 30 minutes each for Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude & Language section and 15 minutes each for General Awareness & Computer Knowledge (120 minutes: Total Duration)
  • Aspirants can choose to take the English Language or Hindi Language section.
  • The pattern of negative marking will be the same as that of the prelims.
IBPS RRB Clerk Mains Exam Pattern
Name Of The Section  No. Of Questions Marks Duration
Reasoning Ability 40 50 30 minutes
Quantitative Aptitude 40 50 30 minutes
General Awareness 40 40 15 minutes
English/Hindi Language 40 40 30 minutes
Computer Knowledge 40 20 15 minutes
Total 200 200 2 hours

GA Capsule for SBI Clerk Mains 2025, Download PDF_3.1

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NPS Trust Result 2025 Out for Grade A and B Posts

The National Pension System Trust (NPS Trust) has announced the results for Grade A and B posts on 28 April 2025 on its official website. Candidates who appeared for the Phase I and Phase II examinations conducted on 25 February 2025 can now check their results. The successful candidates have qualified for the Interview round, which is the final stage of the selection process. This article provides a detailed overview of the NPS Trust Result 2025.

NPS Trust Result 2025 Out

The release of the NPS Trust Result 2025 for Grade A and B posts on 28 April 2025 is a significant development in the recruitment process. Candidates who have qualified for the Interview round are now one step closer to securing a prestigious position in the NPS Trust 2025 recruitment. Qualified candidates are encouraged to prepare diligently and make the most of this opportunity to join an organisation.

NPS Trust Manager & Assistant Manager 2025: Overview

The NPS Trust recruitment drive for Grade A (Assistant Manager) and Grade B (Manager) posts aims to fill 19 vacancies in one of India’s premier organisations responsible for regulating and overseeing the National Pension System. Here is the summary of the NPS Trust Result 2025.

NPS Trust Result 2025
Organisation National Pension System (NPS) Trust
Exam NPS Recruitment 2025
Posts Manager (Grade B) and
Assistant Manager (Grade A)
Vacancy 19
Category Result (Phase I & Phase II)
Status Released
NPS Trust Result 2025 Release Date 28 April 2025
Interview Dates To be announced
Selection Process Phase I, Phase II & Interview
Official Website www.npstrust.org.in
WhatsApp Official Channel Join WhatsApp Channel

NPS Trust Result 2025 Download PDF

Candidates who appeared for the NPS Trust Grade A and B Recruitment 2025 examinations can now download their results in PDF format. The NPS Trust Result 2025 PDF has been officially released on 28 April 2025 and is available. To download the result PDF, click on the link provided below and look for your Roll Number. The result PDF includes details such as candidate names, roll numbers and qualifying status for the Interview round.

NPS Trust Result 2025: Click Here to Download PDF

Have you qualified for the NPS Trust Interview Round?

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Steps to Check the NPS Trust Result 2025

Candidates can check their results by following these steps:

  • Visit the official NPS Trust website (https://npstrust.org.in).
  • Navigate to the “Careers” or “Recruitment” section.
  • Go to the “Vacancies” section
  • Click on the link titled “NPS Trust Result 2025 for Grade A and B Posts”.
  • Search your roll number using the find function (Ctrl+f).
  • Submit the details to view and download your result.

Details Mentioned on NPS Trust Result 2025

Candidates who have qualified for the Interview round are advised to download and print their results for future reference. The result displays the following information:

  • Exam Details
  • Candidate’s Registration and Roll Number
  • Qualifying status for the Interview round

NPS Trust 2025 Interview Round

The Interview round is the final stage of the NPS Trust recruitment process. Candidates must prepare thoroughly for the interview by revising their subject knowledge, staying updated on current affairs related to the pension sector, and practising mock interviews. Qualified candidates will be evaluated on their:

  • Technical Knowledge: Understanding of pension systems, financial regulations, and related domains.
  • Communication Skills: Ability to articulate ideas clearly and confidently.
  • Problem-Solving Abilities: Approach to handling real-world challenges in the pension and financial sectors.
  • Overall Suitability: Alignment with the organisation’s values and goals.
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GA Capsule for SBI PO Mains Exam 2025, Download PDF

The General Awareness (GA) Capsule for the SBI PO Mains Exam 2025 is a must-have resource for aspirants looking to maximize their scores in the General Awareness section. With the exam scheduled for 05 May 2025, it’s crucial to focus on the most relevant and recent updates in current affairs, banking awareness, and static GK. Designed for quick revision, it serves as the perfect tool for last-minute preparation, ensuring that you stay updated and well-prepared. Download the PDF now to boost your preparation and secure a top spot in the exam.

GA Capsule for SBI PO Mains Exam 2025

The General Awareness (GA) section of the SBI PO Mains Exam 2025 consists of 60 questions carrying a total of 60 marks. To assist candidates in achieving a strong score, the GA Power Capsule has been meticulously curated by experts, offering precise and trustworthy content. It covers key areas such as current affairs, sports, defence updates, books and authors, static GK, recent agreements, and more. As the GA section is a high-scoring opportunity, thorough preparation with this capsule can significantly enhance your chances of success.

Also read, SBI PO Mains Admit Card 2025

SBI PO Mains GA Capsule 2025 Download PDF

Below is the direct link to download the PDF for our GA Power Capsule for the SBI PO Mains Exam 2025. This PDF is easy to access, and candidates should go through it to understand important topics for the exam. Click on the link below to download it.

SBI PO Mains GA Capsule 2025
GA Capsule For SBI PO Mains Exam 2025: Click Here To Download Part 1 PDF
GA Capsule For SBI PO Mains Exam 2025: Click Here To Download Part 2 PDF
GA Capsule For SBI PO Mains Exam 2025: Click Here To Download Part 3 PDF

Test Prime

SBI PO Mains GA Topic-wise Capsule 2025
Books and Authors Capsule Download Now
Agreements and MOUs Capsule Download Now
Important Days Capsule Download Now
Schemes Capsule Download Now
Banking, Economy Capsule Download Now
Appointments Capsule Download Now

What’s Included in GA Capsule for SBI PO Mains Exam 2025

The GA Capsule for the SBI PO Mains Exam 2025 has been specially compiled to cover all crucial updates from October 2024 to February 2025. It includes detailed coverage of National and International Current Affairs, New Appointments, MoUs and Agreements, along with Banking and Financial News. Important segments like Economy & Business, Defence, Awards & Honours, Summits & Conferences, Government Committees, Global and National Indexes, Sports Updates, Science & Technology advancements, Government Schemes, Important Days & Themes, Environmental News, and Major Obituaries are also included.

Benefits of GA Capsule for SBI PO Mains Exam 2025

Here are some benefits of GA Capsule for the SBI PO Mains Exam 2025:-

  • Covers Important Topics – The GA Capsule includes key areas like current affairs, banking awareness, Static GK, sports news, defence news, and recent agreements.
  • Saves Time – Instead of searching for information from multiple sources, candidates can get all essential updates in one place.
  • Boosts Score – The General Awareness section is high-scoring, and this capsule helps in quick revision, improving accuracy and speed.
  • Easy to Understand – The content is structured simply and clearly, making it easy to grasp even complex topics.
  • Quick Revision with PDF – The downloadable PDF allows candidates to revise anytime, making last-minute preparation easier.
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