Simplification is one of the highest-scoring topics in the IBPS RRB PO and Clerk exams. Candidates who master simplification can attempt a large number of questions in a very short time, significantly boosting their overall score. With the IBPS RRB PO and Clerk Exams 2025 approaching, it is crucial to adopt smart techniques to solve simplification questions quickly and accurately. In this article, we bring you the best simplification tricks, shortcuts, and preparation tips to help you maximize your performance in the Quantitative Aptitude section.

Simplification for IBPS RRB PO and Clerk Exam 2025

Simplification questions generally appear in the Preliminary exams and sometimes in the Mains as part of the Data Interpretation sets. These questions are designed to test candidates’ speed and accuracy in basic arithmetic operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, square roots, and percentage calculations. Since these are basic yet highly scoring, mastering simplification can be a game-changer for the selection.

Simplification Tricks for IBPS RRB PO and Clerk Exam 2025

Simplification can be your golden ticket to clearing the cut-off in the IBPS RRB PO and Clerk Prelims 2025. By applying the right tricks and consistent practice, you can easily attempt 20-25 questions in this section within minutes. Focus on accuracy along with speed, because negative marking can affect your final score.

1. Approximation Method: When you see large or complicated numbers, round them off to the nearest tens, hundreds, or thousands to make the calculation faster.
Example: Solve: 498 × 51
Approximate it to: 500 × 50 = 25000.
Now adjust the slight difference accordingly for accurate results.

2. Use of BODMAS Rule: Always follow the BODMAS sequence (Brackets, Orders, Division and Multiplication, Addition and Subtraction) strictly while solving any simplification question. Misplacing the order often leads to incorrect answers.

3. Learn Shortcut Squares and Cubes: Memorise minimum squares up to 30 and cubes up to 20. This will help in faster calculation during simplification involving square roots and cube roots.
Example: √729 = 27 (because 27² = 729)

4. Digit Summation or Digital Root: Sometimes, to verify the answer, the candidate can use digit summation. Add the digits of the number repeatedly until you get a single-digit number. It can quickly indicate whether your final answer might be correct.

5. Use of Fractions in Place of Decimals: Convert decimals into fractions for easier calculations.
Example: 0.25 = ¼, 0.5 = ½, 0.75 = ¾.

6. Learn Common Algebraic Identities: The algebraic identities help simplify lengthy expressions much faster. For Example:

(a+b)² = a² + 2ab + b²

(a-b)² = a² – 2ab + b²

(a+b)(a-b) = a² – b²

Key Preparation Tips for Simplification

• Daily Practice: Set a target to practice at least 30-40 simplification questions daily.
• Mock Tests: Attempt sectional and full-length mock tests regularly to track your speed and accuracy.
• Time Management: During practice sessions, use a stopwatch to challenge yourself to solve questions faster.
• Identify Shortcuts: While practising, consciously look for alternative, faster methods of calculation.
• Analyze Mistakes: Carefully review wrong answers to understand where you went wrong and how you could have simplified the problem better.

Common Mistakes to Avoid while Solving Simplification

Being cautious about the common mistakes can help maintain both speed and precision during the exam.

• Skipping the BODMAS order.
• Ignoring rounding off during approximation.
• Calculation errors due to hurried addition or subtraction.
• Not double-checking the units (especially when decimals are involved).

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Every year, lakhs of banking aspirants in India eagerly wait for the IBPSC PO Exam. It is single-handedly one of the most competitive banking exams in India, and applicants require a high level of preparedness and insights to the exam to be able to crack the exam and land up with the appointment letter. One such element that helps to enhance their comprehension about the difficulty level, competitiveness, and other nuances of the exam is the IBPSC PO Cut Off Trends, which significantly paves the path to success. 

Whether you’re a first-time test-taker or a repeat candidate, analysing the cut-off trends of the last four years (2021–2024) can give you a clear idea of the competition level, exam difficulty, and expected score range. In this article, we break down the IBPS PO cut-off category-wise for each year and analyse the patterns to help banking aspirants make data-driven decisions.

IBPS PO Cut Off Trend (Category-Wise)

Check out the detailed Category-Wise IBPS PO Cut Off Trend from 2021 to 2024 (4 Years). These trends show how the cut-off marks changed over the last 4 years. Understanding these changes will help you figure out what they mean and how you can use this information to improve your preparation strategy.

IBPS PO Cut Off Trend (Category-Wise)
Category	2024	2023	2022	2021
General	48.50	54.25	49.75	50.50
EWS	48.50	54.25	49.75	50.50
OBC-NCL	48.50	54.25	49.75	50.50
SC	48.00	49.50	46.75	44.50
ST	41.00	43.00	40.50	38.00
HI	16.00	21.75	17.50	20.75
OC	35.00	42.50	32.75	42.00
VI	15.75	39.00	24.75	37.00
ID	15.50	20.25	19.75	20.75

Insights from IBPS PO Cut Off Trends (2021–2024)

The IBPS PO Cut Off Trends from 2021 to 2024 give important clues for candidates. The trend shows that cut-offs usually go up when there are fewer vacancies. For example, in 2023 the vacancies were just 3049 and the cut-off was the highest at 54.25 for GEN EWS and OBC. This shows that competition was very tough. In 2024 the vacancies increased to 4455 and the cut-offs dropped. This could mean the exam was tougher or there was less competition. For SC and ST categories the cut-offs kept rising from 44.50 in 2021 to 49.50 in 2023 and only dropped a little to 48.00 in 2024. This shows steady performance for these groups. On the other hand the cut-offs for Pwd categories kept changing a lot every year. This may be because of changes in competition levels and the number of seats available.

Factors Influencing the IBPS PO Cut Off Trends

The IBPS PO cut off trends over the years are influenced by several key factors. One major element is the fluctuation in vacancy numbers- fewer vacancies, as witnessed in 2023, intensify competition and result in higher cut offs, while years with more vacancies, like 2022 and 2024, generally see a slight drop in cut offs due to broader selection scope. Other factors, such as the difficulty level of the exam also plays a vital role, an easier paper allows more candidates to score higher, pushing cut offs up, whereas tougher papers, possibly in 2024, limit high scores and pull the cut offs down. Additionally, the number of serious aspirants and their level of preparation impact the cut off- greater participation and better-prepared candidates naturally raise the competition. 

How to Optimally Use IBPS PO Cut Off Trends?

As we have covered the Key Takeaways and reasons behinds the fluctuations as per the IBPS PO cut off trends, it is time to reflect upon on the implications of the cut off trends for the aspirants aiming to succeed in this highly competitive exam. To stay ahead, candidates should consistently aim for scores 5–10 marks above the highest previous category wise cut off, rather than depending on past low trends.

Keeping track of vacancy updates is equally important, as they help assess the level of competition and adjust preparation strategies accordingly. Since exam difficulty varies each year, it’s essential to practice for both easy and tough papers. Reserved category candidates, especially SC/ST and PwD, should use previous year cut off data to set realistic targets while staying alert to yearly fluctuations. Most importantly, regular mock tests are vital for tracking progress, identifying gaps, and aligning performance with actual cut off expectations. 

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Preparing for the IBPS RRB PO and Clerk exams demands strong reasoning skills, as the Reasoning Ability section plays a vital role in both Prelims and Mains. This section tests a candidate’s logical thinking, problem-solving abilities, and decision-making skills under time pressure. Practising a variety of reasoning questions, such as puzzles, seating arrangements, syllogisms, coding-decoding, and blood relations, is essential to boost both speed and accuracy. To help you succeed, we have compiled important reasoning questions that match the latest exam pattern and difficulty level.

Reasoning for IBPS RRB PO and Clerk

The reasoning section is one of the important sections in the RRB exams, which constitutes around 50 % of prelims (i.e. 40 marks) and 25% of mains (i.e. 50 marks) exams. Without mastering this section, it is impossible to think of clearing the RRB PO & Clerk exam. To enhance their preparation, we are providing the important reasoning questions for the IBPS RRB exams. The reasoning section of IBPS RRB includes the following topics (including prelims and mains of both PO & Clerk)

• Puzzles
  • Box Based Puzzles (Certain + Uncertain)
  • Floor or Floor-Flat Based Puzzles
  • Comparison/ Categorized/ Order Ranking-Based Puzzle
  • Blood-Relation-based Puzzles
  • Day/ Month/ Year/Age-Based Puzzle
• Seating Arrangements
  • Circular/ Triangular/ Rectangular/ Square Seating Arrangement
  • Linear Seating Arrangement (Single, Double, or Uncertain) + With Direction & Distance
• Direction / Coded-Direction
• Blood Relation / Coded-Blood-Relation
• Inequality / Coded Inequality
• Coding-Decoding (General + Coded)
• Resultant (Miscellaneous)
• Coded Series
• Syllogism (General + Coded)
• Data-Sufficiency (Two or Three statements)
• Input-Output (Word or Number Based)
• Logical Reasoning: Statement and Assumptions, Statement and Inference, Cause and Effect, Course of Action, Strength of Argument, and Statement and Conclusion

Reasoning Questions for IBPS RRB PO and Clerk

Directions (1-5): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer:

(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(d) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(e) If the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q1. How is ‘Plan’ written in a code language?

1. ‘plan panel study’ is written as ‘mn st dl’ and ‘month study plan’ is written as ‘op dl mn’ in that code language.
2. ‘draft with month’ is written as ‘op cl xy’ and ‘plan highway project’ is written as ‘qr mn ps’ in that code language.

Q2. Point T is in which direction from point P?

1. Point T is in south of Point R which is east of Point Q. Point P is in north of Point Q.
2. Point Q is in west of Point P while Point T is east Point R.

Q3. Who amongst L, M, N, O, Q and P is the tallest person?

1. O is shorter than Q who is taller than only two persons. Q is not as tall as L.
2. P is taller than Q but not the tallest person.

Q4. By using which statement, we can conclude ‘some flute are not guitar’.

1. Some piano is guitar. Some guitar is violin. All violins are flute.
2. Some guitar is piano. All violins are flute. No guitar is violin.

Q5. A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting around a circular table. How many persons are facing opposite to the centre?

1. Only one person sits between D and E. F is not an immediate neighbour of E. A sits second to the left of F who faces inside the center. C faces inside and B faces outside the center.
2. E sits third to the right of F and immediate left of A. C sits immediate left of B. E sits second to the right of D and faces same direction as D.

Directions (6-9): Study the following information to answer the given questions.

A person starts moving from Point A towards east direction to point B. After walking 5km to reach B he turns to the left and walks 5km to reach point C. From there he turns to his left and walks 8 km. After reaching to point D he turns to the south direction and walks 10km and reached to point E. Then he again turns to his left and walks 6km to reach point F. Finally, he turns to left and walks 3km and reach to point G.

Q6. What is the shortest distance between point A and point G?

(a) 3 km

(b) 8 km

(c) 10 km

(d) 5 km

(e) None of these

Q7. Point C is in which direction with respect to point E?

(a) North-East

(b) South

(c) East

(d) South-West

(e) None of these

Q8. If the person further travels 5km from point G to reach point H, then Point B will be in which direction with respect to point H?

(a) North-East

(b) South

(c) East

(d) South-West

(e) Can’t be determined

Q9. How far is point C with respect to point A?

(a) 3√2 km

(b) 7√5 km

(c)11√3 km

(d) 5√2 km

(e) None of these

Q10. X left home and cycled 10 km towards South, then turned right and cycled 5 km and then again turned right and cycled 10 km. After this he turned left and cycled 10 km. How many kilometers will he have to cycle to reach his home from his final position straight?

(a) 10 km

(b) 15 km

(c) 20 km

(d) 25 km

(e) None of these

Directions (11-15): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Amit starts his journey from point S, walks 20m towards west to reach at point D, then takes a left turn and walks for 8m to reach point N. From point N he takes a left turn and walks for 18m to reach at point X. From point X, he takes a left turn and walks 12m to reach at point Y, then takes a right turn and walks 6m to reach point T. From point T, He walks 4m in south direction and reached point M.

Q11. What is the shortest distance between point S and M?

(a) 4m

(b) 6m

(c) 2m

(d) 5m

(e) None of these

Q12. If point H is 6m west of point M then in which direction is point Y with respect to point H?

(a) South

(b) North-west

(c) South-east

(d) East

(e) North

Q13. In which direction is point T with respect of D?

(a) North

(b) South-west

(c) North-east

(d) East

(e) South-east

Q14. What is the shortest distance between Point D and Point X?

(a) √388m

(b) 10m

(c) 15m

(d) 20m

(e) None of these

Q15. In which direction is point N with respect of point Y?

(a) North-east

(b) South-west

(c) North-west

(d) South

(e) None of these

Directions (16-20): In the question below, three statements are given followed by the conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Q16. Statements:

Only a few Bulls are Cows.

Some Oxes are Cows.

Only Cows are Cattles.

Conclusions:

1. Some Bulls are Cattles.
2. All Cows can be Bulls.

(a) If only conclusion I follows

(b) If only conclusion II follows

(c) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

(d) If both conclusions I and II follow

(e) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Q17. Statements:

Only a few Zoos are Forests.

No Forests are Animals.

All Animals are Birds.

Conclusions:

1. Some Zoos are not Forests.
2. Some Animals are not Zoos.

(a) If only conclusion I follows

(b) If only conclusion II follows

(c) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

(d) If both conclusions I and II follow

(e) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Q18. Statements:

Some Lowers are Tees.

All Tees are Tops.

No Tops are Skirts.

Conclusions:

1. Some Lowers are not Skirts
2. No Skirts are Tees

(a) If only conclusion I follows

(b) If only conclusion II follows

(c) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

(d) If both conclusions I and II follow

(e) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Q19. Statements:

All Walnuts are Raisins.

Some Raisins are Almonds.

No Almonds are Dates.

Conclusions:

1. Some Raisins are not Almonds.
2. Some Walnuts are Dates.

(a) If only conclusion I follows

(b) If only conclusion II follows

(c) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

(d) If both conclusions I and II follow

(e) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Q20. Statements:

All Boxes are Columns.

Some Columns are Rows.

No Rows are Tables.

Conclusions:

1. No Boxes are Tables
2. Some Columns are not Tables

(a) If only conclusion I follows

(b) If only conclusion II follows

(c) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

(d) If both conclusions I and II follow

(e) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Directions (21-25): Study the numbers and letters sequence carefully and answer the questions given below.

9 A 6 3 W 8 E S 5 T 2 F 7 Y G 4 1 H U 7 I 8 K 9 O 2 L 5 M P C 4 B 6 D 9 3 X

Q21. How many odd numbers are in between ‘T’ and ‘C’ in the given series?

(a) Seven

(b) Five

(c) Four

(d) Six

(e) None of these

Q22. If all the even numbers are removed from the given series, then which amongst the following element will be 17th to the left of ‘L’?

(a) W

(b) E

(c) 3

(d) S

(e) None of these

Q23. How many consonants are immediately preceded by a number which is greater than 3?

(a) Four

(b) Six

(c) Five

(d) Seven

(e) None of these

Q24. What is the sum of the number which is 7th number from the left end and 7th from the right end?

(a) 13

(b) 15

(c) 14

(d) 16

(e) None of these

Q25. What is the position of the element which is 18^th from the right end with respect to ‘Y’?

(a) Sixth to the left

(b) Eighth to the right

(c) Seventh to the right

(d) Sixth to the right

(e) None of these

Directions (26-27): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Point J is 15m south of point V. Point L is 10m north of point H which is 15m east of point J. Point G is 5m south of point T which is 20m east of point V.

Q26. Four among the following five pair are similar in a certain way and forms a group. Which among the following pair does not belong to the group?

(a) J, L

(b) H, G

(c) L, T

(d) J, T

(e) H, V

Q27. Point T is in which direction with respect to point J?

(a) North-West

(b) West

(c) South-West

(d) North-East

(e) None of these

Directions (28-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Point Z is 15m west of point X. Point Y is 15m west of point V. Point S is 20m south of point T. Point X is 25m north of point W which is 15m east of point R. Point S is 10m west of point R which is 20m north of point V.

Q28. Point V is in which direction with respect to point Z?

(a) South

(b) North-East

(c) North-West

(d) West

(e) None of these

Q29. Point W is in which direction with respect to point S?

(a) South

(b) North-West

(c) East

(d) North

(e) None of these

Q30. Point Y is in which direction with respect to point X?

(a) South

(b) South-West

(c) East

(d) North

(e) None of these

Directions (31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

In a certain code language,

“Give your efforts rarely” is coded as “xa ca na pa”

“Never your praise rarely” is coded as “da la pa xa”

“Success give efforts never” is coded as “ca ba na da”

“Achieve your praise rarely” is coded as “ga xa pa la”

Q31. What is the code of “never”?

(a) la

(b) da

(c) ca

(d) na

(e) None of these

Q32. What could be the code of “achieve give”?

(a) ba ca

(b) da na

(c) ca ga

(d) xa pa

(e) None of these

Q33. What is the code of “rarely your success”?

(a) ba xa ca

(b) xa pa ga

(c) xa ba ca

(d) xa pa ba

(e) None of these

Q34. If the code of “efforts never” is “na da”, then what will be the code of “give praise”?

(a) ca la

(b) la ba

(c) ga ba

(d) ca na

(e) None of these

Q35. What is the code of “your”?

(a) xa

(b) la

(c) Cannot be determined

(d) ga

(e) None of these

Directions (36-37): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A walked 40m towards east from his shop and took a right turn and walked 20m. He again took a right turn and walked 30m. Finally, he took a right turn, walked 10m and reached to the station.

Q36. In which direction is the station located from his shop?

(a) South

(b) Southeast

(c) Northeast

(d) Northwest

(e) East

Q37. What is the shortest distance between A’s Shop and Station?

(a) 6m

(b) 4√5m

(c) 15m

(d) 12m

(e) 10√2m

Q38. Ashish starts walking from his office facing west and walks 40 m straight, then takes a right turn and walks 20 m straight. Further he takes a left turn and walks 10 m. In which direction is Ashish now from the starting point?

(a) North-East

(b) South-West

(c) North

(d) North-West

(e) West

Directions (39-40): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

H has only two children-B and C. B is the sister of C. D is the son of C. E is the brother of D. F is the mother of E. G, who is sister of D, is the granddaughter of A who is the mother of B.

Q39. How is A related to E?

(a) Grandmother

(b) Son

(c) Mother

(d) Cousin Brother

(e) None of these

Q40. How is G related to A’s daughter in law?

(a) Sister

(b) Mother

(c) Son

(d) Daughter

(e) None of these

 

Directions (41-43): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A three-generation family consists of nine members i.e., W, B, Z, K, A, N, Q, D and P. There are two married couples. N is the daughter of B. Q is the mother-in-law of B. D has only three children. P is the grandmother of N. W is sister of B. Siblings of K are unmarried. N is the niece of Z who is the brother-in-law of B. A is the maternal aunt of N. P has only two children. K is the mother of N. D has only one son.

Q41. What is the relation of W with respect to K?

(a) Maternal aunt

(b) Paternal aunt

(c) Sister

(d) Sister-in-law

(e) None of these

Q42. Who among the following is/are the children of D?

(i) The one who is the wife of B.

(ii) A who is the sister of Z.

(iii) Z who is the son of Q.

(a) Only (i)

(b) Only (iii)

(c) Both (ii) and (iii)

(d) Both (i) and (iii)

(e) All (i), (ii) and (iii)

Q43. Who among the following is the spouse of Q?

(a) D

(b) W

(c) P

(d) Data inadequate

(e) None of these

Directions (44-45): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A person starts walking from point G he walks 10m north and reach at point H. From point H, He walks 7m in east direction and reach at point K. From point K, he walks 6m south and reach at point Y. Now he takes a right turn and walks 4m to reach at point B. After reaching at point B, he starts walking in south direction and reach at point M, which is east of point G.

Q44. What is the shortest distance between point B and point M?

(a) 6m

(b) 7m

(c) 4m

(d) 3m

(e) None of these

Q45. If point S is 5m east of point M then, in which direction is point S with respect to point K?

(a) North

(b) South

(c) South east

(d) South west

(e) None of these

Directions (46-50): Answer the questions based on the information given below:

Certain number of persons sits in a row facing north. V doesn’t sit adjacent to L. Five persons sit between K and D. A sits exactly between K and D. Five persons sit between A and V. L sits 4th to the right of K. D sits 2nd from one of the extreme ends. Two persons sit between V and G. Number of persons to the right of G is two more than those to the left of K. P sits 3rd to the right of Q, who sits exactly in the middle of the row.

Q46. Who sits adjacent to P?

(a) K

(b) A

(c) None of these

(d) L

(e) G

Q47. How many persons sit to the left of G?

(a) Six

(b) Nine

(c) Four

(d) Five

(e) None of these

Q48. How many persons sit in the row?

(a) 21

(b) 17

(c) 19

(d) 15

(e) None of these

Q49. Who among the following doesn’t sit to the left of Q?

1. V
2. K

III. G

(a) Only I

(b) Only II

(c) Only III

(d) Only I and II

(e) Only II and III

Q50. What is the position of Q with respect to K?

(a) 3^rd to the left

(b) 2^nd to the left

(c) 4^th to the right

(d) 2^nd to the right

(e) None of these

Directions (51-53): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A is standing 5m south of B. C is standing at the midpoint of D & E. E is standing 5m west of F who is standing 5m south of G. H is standing 5m north of C. I is standing 5m north of E who is standing 6m to the east of D. D is standing 10m south of B.

Q51. What is shortest distance between D and F?

(a) 11m

(b) 12m

(c) 13m

(d) 14m

(e) None of the above

Q52. In which direction is G with respect to D?

(a) North-east

(b) South-east

(c) North-west

(d) South-west

(e) None of these

Q53. In which direction is B with respect to F?

(a) North-east

(b) South-east

(c) North-west

(d) South-west

(e) None of these

Q54. If in the number “45671234”, 2 is subtracted from each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit, then which digit will appear twice in the new number?

(a) Only 0

(b) Both 2 and 4

(c) Only 4

(d) Both 0 and 4

(e) None of these

Q55. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from 1st, 2^nd, 5^th and 6^th letters of word “INDIGENES“, then which will be the 2nd letter of the word from left end? If no such word can be formed, then mark the answer as ‘Y’. If more than one word can be formed mark the answer as ‘X’.

(a) Y

(b) I

(c) N

(d) G

(e) X

Directions (56-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight Persons are sitting around a square table, four of them sit at four corners facing inside while four sits at the middle of the sides facing outside.

B sits third to the left of D. H sits second to the left of B and G sits third to the left of H. F is an immediate neighbor of D. A sits third to the left of the one who sits second to the left of F. E does not sits at corner. C sits immediate right of B.

Q56. How many persons sit between D and E, when counted right of D?

(a) Three

(b) One

(c) None

(d) Two

(e) Four

Q57. Who among the following sits immediate right of H?

(a) E

(b) D

(c) A

(d) C

(e) B

Q58. Who among the following faces G?

(a) D

(b) C

(c) B

(d) H

(e) A

Q59. What is the position of E with respect of B?

(a) Immediate right

(b) Second to the right

(c) Immediate Left

(d) Third to the left

(e) None of these

Q60. Four of the following are alike in a certain way so form a group, who among the following does not belong to that group?

(a) C

(b) D

(c) A

(d) B

(e) G

Directions (61-65): In the question below, some statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Q61. Statements:

Only a few Bluetooth are Wi-Fi.

All Wi-Fi are Hotspot.

Only a few Hotspots are Networks.

Conclusions:

I. Some Wi-Fi are Networks.

II. All Hotspot are Bluetooth.

(a) Only I follows

(b) Only II follows

(c) Either I or II follows

(d) Neither I nor II follows

(e) Both I and II follow 

Q62. Statements:

All Bones are Muscles.

Only a few Bones are Tissues.

Only a few Tissues are Ligaments.

Conclusions:

I. Some Muscles are Ligaments.

II. No Ligaments are Muscles.

(a) Only I follows

(b) Only II follows

(c) Either I or II follows

(d) Neither I nor II follows

(e) Both I and II follow

Q63. Statements:

Only a few Nike are PUMA.

All PUMA are CCD.

Conclusions:

I. All Nike are PUMA.

II. Some CCD are Nike.

(a) Only I follows

(b) Only II follows

(c) Either I or II follows

(d) Neither I nor II follows

(e) Both I and II follow

Q64. Statements:

Some fruit is bitter.

No bitter is medicine.

All medicine is Yellow.

Conclusions:

I. All bitter can be Yellow.

II. No fruits is medicine.

(a) Only I follows

(b) Only II follows

(c) Either I or II follows

(d) Neither I nor II follows

(e) Both I and II follow

Q65. Statements:

Some shows are plays.

Some plays are movies.

No movie is theatre.

Conclusions:

I. All movies are plays.

II. Some shows are definitely not theatres.

(a) Only I follows

(b) Only II follows

(c) Either I or II follows

(d) Neither I nor II follows

(e) Both I and II follow

Directions (66-70): In the following questions assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the conclusion(s) among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Q66. Statements: T > W > U; X < U > M > K; H < K

Conclusions: I. H ≤ W      II. T > X

(a) Only I is true

(b) Only II is true

(c) Either I or II is true

(d) Neither I nor II is true

(e) Both I and II are true

Q67. Statements: V > W ≥ I > Q; L = F < Y < Q; L > Z

Conclusions: I. W > Z       II. L ≤ V

(a) Only I is true

(b) Only II is true

(c) Either I or II is true

(d) Neither I nor II is true

(e) Both I and II are true

Q68. Statements: E ≤ T ≤ H = J, N= O > C ≥ R, J < N

Conclusions: I. E ≤ N        II. T < O

(a) Only I is true

(b) Only II is true

(c) Either I or II is true

(d) Neither I nor II is true

(e) Both I and II are true

Q69. Statements: I = N < K, T > F ≤ I, L = H ≥ T

Conclusions: I. L > F         II. F < K

(a) Only I is true

(b) Only II is true

(c) Either I or II is true

(d) Neither I nor II is true

(e) Both I and II are true

Q70. Statements: B = K > E, R = D < O ≥ B, G > S ≥ R

Conclusions: I. O ≥ K        II. S ≤ B

(a) Only I is true

(b) Only II is true

(c) Either I or II is true

(d) Neither I nor II is true

(e) Both I and II are true

Directions (71-72): Answer the questions based on the information given below.

There are seven members in a family of four generations. T is father of R’s brother. Q is mother of P. N is mother-in-law of T. R is married. The genders of S and U are opposite to each other. Q is not married to T.

Q71. How is S related to Q?

(a) Father-in-law

(b) Brother-in-law

(c) Son-in-law

(d) Mother-in-law

(e) Can’t be determined

Q72. How is R related to N?

(a) Grandfather

(b) Grandson

(c) Sister

(d) Mother

(e) None of these

Directions (73-75): Answer the questions based on the information given below.

There are nine points A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I, drawn on a sheet of paper. B is 10cm to the south of A. D is 11cm to the west of E. D is 4cm to the north of C. G is 4cm to the east of F. H is 8cm to the south of G. I is 4cm to the west of H. C is 5cm to the west of B. F is 4cm to the north of E.

Q73. What is the direction of point A with respect to point I?

(a) North-East

(b) North-west

(c) North

(d) South-west

(e) None of these

Q74. What is the shortest distance between point C and point H?

(a) 13m

(b) 15m

(c) 12m

(d) 18m

(e) None of these

Q75. What is the direction of point C with respect to point G?

(a) North-East

(b) North-west

(c) South-east

(d) South-west

(e) None of these

Directions (76-80): Study the letters and symbols sequence carefully and answer the questions given below.

@ Z E # X C $ V % B A ^ L & K J * H I Ω R Q ∞ W € T U α P M ¥ N £ Y O © D β S

Q76. What is the sum of the place values according to English alphabetical order of the elements which is 15th from the left end and 16th from the right end?

(a) 32

(b) 34

(c) 33

(d) 35

(e) None of these

Q77. How many elements are in between ‘A’ and 7th element from the right end?

(a) 21

(b) 19

(c) 20

(d) 22

(e) None of these

Q78. How many letters are immediately preceded by and immediately followed by a symbol?

(a) Six

(b) Seven

(c) Four

(d) Five

(e) None of these

Q79. What is the position of ‘*’ with respect to ‘M’?

(a) Eleventh to the left

(b) Thirteenth to the left

(c) Twelfth to the left

(d) Fourteenth to the left

(e) None of these

Q80. Which amongst the following element is 11th to the left of 25th element from the left end?

(a) &

(b) L

(c) K

(d) J

(e) None of these

Directions (81-83): In each question below, some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer

(a) If only conclusion I follows

(b) If only conclusion II follows

(c) If either conclusion I or II follows

(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows

(e) If both conclusions I and II follow

Q81. Statements:

Only a few March are April.

Only a few April is May.

All May is June.

Conclusions:

1. All June being April is a possibility.
2. Some May are March.

Q82. Statements:

Only chips are coffee.

Some chips is cookies.

Only a few cookies is sugar.

Conclusions:

1. Some coffee is cookies
2. All cookies are sugar is a possibility

Q83. Statements:

Some Blue are Olive.

All Olive is Yellow.

Some Yellow is White.

Conclusions:

1. Some Olive is White.
2. Some Blue are Yellow.

Directions (84-85): In each of the questions below, some statements are given followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

(a) If only conclusion I follows

(b) If only conclusion II follows

(c) If either conclusion I or II follows

(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows

(e) If both conclusions I and II follow

Q84. Statements:

Some apple are Papaya

No apple is Mango

All Mango is litchi

Conclusion:

I: Some papaya are not Mango

II: Some litchi are mango

Q85. Statements:

All Box are Bottle

All Bottle are cards

Some cards are mobile

Conclusion:

I: Some mobile are Bottle

II: All cards are bottle

Directions (86-90): Study the information and answer the following questions:

In a certain code language,

‘strike publish hype place’ is written as ‘er ol mz et’,

‘road prove highway health’ is written as ‘ca om zc bt’,

‘dream place minor highway’ is written as ‘mz bt hx sv’,

‘road length dream hype’ is written as ‘hx ol nc ca’,

Q86. What is the possible code for ‘publish search minor’ in the given code language?

(a) sv er bt

(b) er sv nc

(c) et sv ca

(d) sv et ya

(e) et sv om

Q87. What is the code for ‘road place’ in the given code language?

(a) ca bt

(b) mz et

(c) mz ca

(d) ca er

(e) None of these

Q88. What is the code for ‘hype’ in the given code language?

(a) et

(b) bt

(c) ol

(d) er

(e) None of these

Q89. What is the code for ‘length’ in the given code language?

(a) hx

(b) ol

(c) nc

(d) ca

(e) None of these

Q90. What is the code for ‘health’ in the given code language?

(a) zc

(b) om

(c) ca

(d) bt

(e) Cannot determined

Directions (91-95): In each question below, some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to assume everything in the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then find out which of the five given conclusions does not logically follow from the statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Q91. Statements: Some exam are result.

No result is selection.

Some selection are job.

Conclusions:

(a) Some exam are not selection.

(b) No selection is a result.

(c) Some job are not result.

(d) Some exam are job.

(e) Some Result are exam

Q92. Statements: All Blue are Purple.

Some Purple are not White.

All White are Black.

Conclusions:

(a) All Blue being Black is a possibility.

(b) Some Blue are white.

(c) Some Black are White.

(d) Some Purple are Blue.

(e) Some White are black

Q93. Statements: No Game is a Quiz.

Some Quiz are Trick.

All Trick are Boat.

Conclusions:

(a) Some Quiz are Boat.

(b) Some Trick are not Game.

(c) Some Boat are Game.

(d) Some Boat are Trick.

(e) Some trick are quiz

Q94. Statements: All water are Rain.

No Rain is Pure.

All Pure are Sun.

Conclusions:

(a) No water are Pure.

(b) Some Rain are water.

(c) Some Pure are not Sun.

(d) Some Sun are Pure.

(e) Some water are rain 

Q95. Statements: All Plant are Flower.

All flower are fruit.

Some fruit are light.

Conclusions:

(a) All Plant being light is a possibility.

(b) Some flower are fruit.

(c) All fruit being Plant is a possibility

(d) No flower is Plant.

(e) Some flower are plant

Directions (96-100): Study the given information carefully and answer the following question.

Eight people i.e., A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H go to an amusement park in eight different months i.e., February, March, April, June, July, August, October and December. All the information is not necessarily in the same order.

G goes in the month having 30 days. Three people go between G and A. H goes in the month having less than 31 days. Two people go between H and B. C goes Before B in the month having 31 days but not in July. No one goes between D and F. One person goes between F and E.

Q96. How many people go after D?

(a) One

(b) Three

(c) None

(d) Four

(e) None of these 

Q97. How many people go between G and B?

(a) Two

(b) Three

(c) One

(d) None

(e) Four

Q98. Who goes in August?

(a) E

(b) F

(c) D

(d) A

(e) None of these

 Q99. Four among the following five are same in a certain manner and forms a group. Who among the following does not belong to the group?

(a) H

(b) F

(c) D

(d) A

(e) E

Q100. Who goes between H and G?

(a) B

(b) C

(c) D

(d) F

(e) None of these

Solutions
1. e	2. a	3. d	4. b	5. e	6. e	7. a	8. e	9. d	10. b
11. a	12. e	13. c	14. a	15. b	16. e	17. a	18. d	19. e	20. b
21. b	22. a	23. b	24. d	25. c	26. e	27. d	28. a	29. c	30. b
31. b	32. c	33. d	34. a	35. c	36. b	37. e	38. d	39. a	40. d
41. d	42. e	43. a	44. c	45. c	46. a	47. d	48. c	49. b	50. b
51. a	52. a	53. c	54. d	55. a	56. d	57. c	58. e	59. b	60. d
61. d	62. c	63. b	64. a	65. d	66. b	67. a	68. b	69. e	70. a
71. e	72. b	73. b	74. b	75. d	76. b	77. a	78. d	79. b	80. a
81. a	82. d	83. b	84. e	85. d	86. d	87. c	88. c	89. c	90. e
91. d	92. b	93. c	94. c	95. d	96. b	97. d	98. b	99. a	100. b

 

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The Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) recently initiated the selection process for the Junior Assistant Manager (JAM) Recruitment 2025. As per the official update, a total of 27,517 candidates have registered for the selection process. This overwhelming response for just 650 vacancies clearly reflects the growing interest among candidates to secure a stable and prestigious career in the banking sector. With such a high number of applications, the competition for the Junior Assistant Manager position is high, so the exam, extremely tough this year.

27517 Candidates applied for IDBI Junior Assistant Manager 2025

The IDBI Junior Assistant Manager 2025 recruitment drive offers a golden opportunity for young graduates who aspire to build their careers in banking. The role of a Junior Assistant Manager is seen as a stepping stone towards managerial positions in the bank, making it highly attractive. Candidates selected through this recruitment will undergo intensive training and will be prepared to take on critical roles and responsibilities within the organisation. Given the attractive salary package, growth prospects, and job stability associated with the post, it is not surprising that so many of aspirants showed keen interest.

Candidates applied for IDBI Junior Assistant Manager 2025
Category	Applications Received	Vacancies Announced
UR	4545	260
EWS	1301	65
OBC	8719	171
SC	9481	100
ST	3471	54
Total	27517	650

With such a significant number of applications for a limited number of vacancies, candidates must now focus on rigorous preparation. The selection process for IDBI Junior Assistant Manager includes an Online Test followed by a Personal Interview.

Candidates are advised to regularly check the official IDBI website for updates regarding the result of the online exam, interview dates, and other important announcements. It is crucial for aspirants to follow a disciplined preparation strategy, attempt mock interviews to improve their communication skills. With determination and the right strategy, cracking the IDBI Junior Assistant Manager 2025 exam is definitely achievable, despite the heavy competition.

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Livestock is a very important part of a farmer’s life in India. Healthy animals help farmers earn a better income and improve their way of living. To make sure animals stay healthy and disease-free, the government has started the Revised Livestock Health and Disease Control Program. This program works towards protecting animals by giving them timely vaccinations and improving veterinary services in villages. It also teaches farmers the right ways to take care of their animals so that they remain strong and productive.

Revised Livestock Health and Disease Control Program 

The Revised Livestock Health and Disease Control Program is a government plan to keep animals healthy and free from dangerous diseases. It aims to control and remove major livestock diseases through vaccination and treatment. The program also helps farmers by giving them access to veterinary services and spreading awareness about animal health.

Click Here to Attempt Revised Livestock Health and Disease Control Program Quiz 

Main Objectives of the Program

The main goals of this program are to:-

• Prevent the spread of dangerous animal diseases.
• Control and eventually eliminate major livestock diseases.
• Improve the quality of animal health services in villages.
• Help farmers learn about animal care and disease prevention.

Important Components of the Program

National Animal Disease Control Programme (NADCP): Focuses on controlling and eradicating Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) and Brucellosis through vaccination.

Livestock Health & Disease Control (LH&DC): Includes sub-components like:-

• Critical Animal Disease Control Programme (CADCP): Targets diseases such as Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR) and Classical Swine Fever (CSF).
• Establishment and Strengthening of Veterinary Hospitals and Dispensaries – Mobile Veterinary Units (ESVHD-MVU): Enhances veterinary services in rural areas.
• Assistance to States for Control of Animal Diseases (ASCAD): Supports state governments in managing and controlling animal diseases.

Pashu Aushadhi: A new component added to provide affordable generic veterinary medicines to farmers.

Benefits of the Program

The program offers many benefits to farmers and the country:

• Healthy animals give better milk, meat, and wool.
• Farmers’ incomes increase because their animals stay productive.
• Animal diseases do not spread to other animals or humans.
• India can increase its export of animal products.

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