IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Mains English Quiz 7th of September 2019

| Updated On September 9th, 2019 at 02:17 pm

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IBPS RRB PO/Clerk Main English Quiz

With every day passed, competition is increasing in leaps and bounds and it is necessary to work smarter to sail through any exam. Having a proper study plan and the updated questions to brush up your knowledge in addition to well-organized study notes for the same can help you with your preparation. IBPS RRB PO/Clerk is going to be the tough exam so you can not afford to leave any important topics. If you deal with the section with accuracy, it can do wonders and can fetch you good marks. As English is the most dreaded subject among students, we are here to provide you with the new questions with the detailed solution so that you can make it this time in IBPS RRB PO/Clerk mains. Here is the English quiz for 8th September 2019. This quiz is based on topic-

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Inferences and Synonyms and Antonyms.

Directions (1-7): In each of the given questions a statement is given in bold which is then followed by three paragraphs. You have to find the paragraph(s) from where it is inferred. Choose the option with the best possible outcome as your choice.
Q1.Targeting risk factors is key to reducing deaths due to cardiovascular diseases
(I) While most of the predominant risk factors for cardiovascular disease present no startling medical revelation, it is significant that the single largest risk factor is a low education level. Any plans that target the risk factors and prevent the onset of non-communicable diseases will clearly have to be truly game-changing and incorporate the environmental angle as well.

(II) A great amount of out-of-pocket expenditure (according to Health Ministry data for 2014-15, nearly 62.6 % of India’s total health expenditure) often frustrates continuation of treatment or adherence to drug regimens. While some States have shown limited successes with government-sponsored health insurance schemes, the Centre’s Ayushman Bharat Yojana will have to take much of the burden of hospitalization for complications of non-communicable diseases.
(III) In low-income countries, including India, however, CVD is still the top killer, with death three times more frequent than that due to cancer. What flies in the face of logic is that the risk burden of CVD-linked mortality is inversely proportional — lower risk but higher mortality in low-income countries, and higher risk but lower mortality in high-income countries.
(a) Only [I]

(b) Only [II]
(c) Only [III]
(d) Both [I] & [III]
(e) None of these


S1. Ans. (a)

Sol. Here, paragraph (I) deduces the given statement quite well. Other options do not have any relevance with the given sentence. Hence, option (a) is the right answer.
Q2. A wider direct tax base is good news — but the share of direct taxes in the total is still low
 
(I) The steps taken by the Union government over the last few years to widen its tax base may finally be yielding some rewards. The total number of tax returns filed in the country increased by over 80% over the last four financial years, according to data released by the Central Board of Direct Taxes on Monday: from 3.79 crores in 2013-14 to 6.85 crores in 2017-18. But the contribution of direct taxes to the total amount of taxes collected by the government, which is currently 52.29%, is still below what it was when Narendra Modi became Prime Minister.
(II) Amidst increasing global tax competition, India is likely to face pressure to bring down corporate tax rates if it wants to maintain its stature as an attractive investment destination. Efforts to draft a new direct tax code, however, are yet to yield fruit due to bureaucratic delays. The government will do well to address this issue.

(III) This year, direct tax collection increased at a higher rate compared to the collection of indirect taxes. Going forward, a further increase in the share of direct taxes will help the government to lower regressive indirect taxes that impose a significant burden on the poor. Direct taxes are also a better choice from the standpoint of economic efficiency as they help avoid the severe distortionary effects of indirect taxes such as the Goods and Services Tax.
(a) Only [I]

(b) Only [II]
(c) Only [III]
(d) Both [I] & [III]
(e) None of these
S2. Ans. (a)
Sol. Here, the paragraph (I) clearly deduces the given statement. Other options are either out of context or they don’t contain complete information about the given statement. Hence, option (a) is the right answer choice.
Q3. Russia could be imagining a greater role for itself in reshaping the region’s geopolitics


(I) Kaul’s cable in September 1965 to Indira Gandhi subsequently explained: “the interests of America, USSR, and India, have a common feature of being aimed at the prevention of Chinese expansion in this area. This provides an opportunity for India to reap the maximum possible advantage from both sides and strengthen herself for the future.”
(II) For Anglo-American policymakers, a long-cherished dream of isolating Russia and pulling China back into their orbit became a reality. For India, the specter of an unfriendly China being checked through a shared understanding with Washington and Moscow fell by the wayside, and New Delhi was compelled to imagine new approaches to safeguard its interests and security.
(III) In substance and without ruffling Beijing’s feathers, Russia is already shaping the geopolitics of the Indo-Pacific. Having been reassured that India is not bandwagoning with the U.S. and genuinely believes in open and inclusive security and order building ideas, Russia could now begin the process of imagining a role in the Indo-Pacific that brings its vast diplomatic experience and strategic heft into the open.
(a) Only [I]

(b) Only [II]
(c) Only [III]
(d) Both [I] & [III]
(e) None of these
S3. Ans. (c)
Sol. Here, paragraph (III) deduces the given statement. Other options do not fit the context of the statement. Hence option (c) is the right answer
choice
Q4. A close reading of UAPA Tribunal orders shows how fundamental principles of fair procedure are being given a miss
(I) In allowing the government vast amounts of leeway in proving its case, tribunals depart from some of the most fundamental principles of fair procedure and act as little more than judicial rubber stamps. And this is made starkly evident by a recent UAPA Tribunal Order (issued on August 23, 2019) confirming the government’s ban on the Jamaat-e-Islami, Jammu, and Kashmir (“JeI, J&K”).
(II) Last month, amendments to the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (“UAPA”), India’s signature anti-terrorism legislation, allowing the central government to designate individuals as “terrorists”, caused a furor. Critics warned that vesting such sweeping powers in the hands of the political executive would prove to be a recipe for abuse, and for political and social persecution.
(III) One would think that such a case can be resolved straightforwardly: had the government managed to prove that there existed sufficient evidence of wrongdoing against members of the JeI, J&K, that would justify banning the organization altogether.
(a) Only [I] & [II]
(b) Only [II]
(c) Only [III]
(d) Both [I] & [III]
(e) None of these
S4. Ans. (a)
Sol. Here, paragraphs (I) and (II) deduces the given inference clearly. Hence, option (a) is the right answer choice.
Q5. Errors aside, the process of NRC was rigorous, methodical and did not target any particular community
(I) The National Register of Citizens (NRC), which was expected to land with a bang in Assam, seems to some as having landed with a mere whoosh. Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) leaders are particularly upset as it has belied their hopes of netting a huge number of immigrant Muslims in a dragnet — reportedly, a majority of those left out are Hindus.
(II) The results of creation of NRC has set at rest the tireless campaign by certain well-meaning but ill-informed people in the academic and media circles to paint the NRC as a vicious plot by some ‘xenophobic Assamese’ to oppress and torture Muslims. The process was impersonal and its strict machine-like operation pre-empted the targeting of any particular community. While there may have been errors and lapses, there is no truth to the allegation of bias.
(III) Those expressing their disappointment over NRC ignore that the rigorous procedures and methodical cross-verifications were not put in place to fulfill some people’s fantasies. The previous figures cited by the government in earlier times were not based on any systematic procedure.
(a) Only [I]
(b) Only [II]
(c) Only [III]
(d) Both [I] & [III]
(e) None of these
S5. Ans. (b) 
Sol. Paragraph (II) clearly deduces the given statement while the rest of the options are out of context. Hence, option (b) is the right answer choice.
Q6. Disaster management plans must be prioritized
(I) Amidst this dangerous setting, global leadership must act with far greater urgency, and countries, including India, ought to switch rapidly from polluting fossil fuels to cleaner renewable energy while building much stronger coastal and inland defenses against climatic damage. Brazil must reverse course on the mindless destruction of the Amazon rainforest.
(II) India should be alarmed at ecological destruction even in faraway places like Amazon. As the country that is most at risk for climate damage, it should lead in pressing the global community to take sweeping climate action. Meanwhile, the nation must reinforce its infrastructure and adapt its agriculture and industry. Equally, it also needs to replace urgently its fossil fuels with renewable energy.
(III) In the face of rising global temperatures, India is not doing enough to boost its coastal and inland defenses. It also needs to do more to build resilience in the sectors of agriculture, fisheries, manufacturing, energy, transport, health, and education. The priority for spending at the national and State levels for disaster management needs to rise. Adequate resources must also be allocated for implementing climate action plans that most States have now prepared.
(a) Only [I]
(b) Only [II]
(c) Only [III]
(d) Both [II] & [III]
(e) None of these
S6. Ans. (d)
Sol. Paragraphs (II) and (III) justify the given statement. Only paragraph (I) does not contain proper information regarding the same. Hence, option (d) is the right answer choice.
Q7. The banks recapitalization plan is per se not bad but funds must be distributed prudently
(I) With just months to go for the general election, the government looks all set to open the credit taps of the economy. The Centre has sought Parliament’s approval to infuse an additional ₹41,000 crore into public sector banks that are starved of precious capital to remain afloat.  More importantly, the infusion will help banks boost lending and stimulate economic activity going into an election year. It is important that the additional capital is not wasted on banks that have not shown any improvement but rather used to support the weak ones that are on the recovery path.
(II) Repo-linked lending rates is one way to ensure that very quick monetary transmissions can take place. In spite of rate cuts or rate changes being made by RBI, banks were finding it increasingly difficult to pass it on because then you have to have a similar kind of movement both on the liability side as well as on the asset side. here was some uncertainty coming up which has been dispelled. The government has talked of deepening of the bond market which is again one of the requirements for NBFCs.

(III) Suffice to say that savings bank customers primarily do not look at interest as their primary notion for keeping a certain amount of deposits with the bank. We continue to open large number of savings bank accounts. So it is the largest savings bank customers who will be affected. Similarly, on the loan side, we have kept cash credit and overdraft short term loans which are above one lakh so that the small businessmen who take loans below one lakh, are not affected by this.
(a) Only [I]

(b) Only [II]
(c) Only [III]
(d) Both [I] & [III]
(e) None of these
S7. Ans. (a)
Sol. Here, paragraph (I) completely justifies the given sentence. Hence, option (a) is the right answer choice.
 
Directions (8-15): In each question below, a word is given followed by four pairs. Choose the pair which states either the synonyms or the antonyms or a synonym and an antonym of the given word. If none of the four pairs are correct then choose “None of these” as your answer choice.
Q8. Turmoil
(a) Disruption, Tranquil
(b) Breakable, Tough
(c) Astound, Repulsive
(d) Adage, Clarify
(e) None of these
S8. Ans. (a)
Sol. The term ‘ turmoil’ means ‘a state of great disturbance, confusion, or uncertaint’. Disruption of the synonym of turmoil whereas tranquil is the antonym. Hence, option (a) is the most suitable answer choice.
Q9. Audacity 
(a) Climb, Descend
(b) Boldness, Cowardice
(c) Entice, Fascinate
(d) Grim, Austere
(e) None of these
S9. Ans. (b) 
Sol. The term ‘audacity’ means ‘a willingness to take bold risks’. ‘boldness’ and ‘cowardice’ are synonym and antonym of ‘audacity’ respectively.
Q10. Defile 
(a) Interpret, Distort
(b) Acute, Smart
(c) Contaminate, Pollute
(d) Spend, Repudiate
(e) None of these
S10. Ans. (c)
Sol. The term ‘defile’ means ‘damage the purity or appearance of’. ‘Contaminate and pollute’ are synonyms of ‘defile’.
Q11. Eloquence
(a) Delight, Calamity
(b) Diminutive, Giant
(c) Destroy, Obliterate
(d) Stammering, Fluency
(e) None of these
S11. Ans. (d)


Sol. The term ‘eloquence’ refers to ‘fluent or persuasive speaking or writing’. Stammering and Fluency’ are antonym and synonym of ‘eloquence’ respectively.
Q12. Fallacy 
(a) Delusion, Mistake
(b) Construct, Produce
(c) Frail, Robust
(d) Strife, Quarrel
(e) None of these
S12. Ans. (a)
Sol. The term ‘fallacy’ means ‘a mistaken belief, especially one based on unsound arguments’. ‘Delusion and Mistake’ are synonyms of ‘fallacy’.
Q13. Guile 
(a) Stuff, Satiate
(b) Deceit, Honesty
(c) Retard, Prevent
(d) Hatred, Benevolence
(e) None of these
S13. Ans. (b)
Sol. The term ‘guile’ means ‘sly or cunning intelligence.’ Deceit and Honesty’ and synonym and antonym of ‘guile’ respectively.
Q14. Heretic
(a) Peril, Danger
(b) Frightful, Shocking
(c) Religious, Secularist
(d) Debilitate, Strengthen
(e) None of these
S14. Ans. (c)


Sol. The term ‘heretic’ refers to ‘a person believing in or practicing religious heresy’. Religious and Secularist are antonym and synonym respectively of ‘heretic’.
Q15. Incongruous 
(a) Hurdle, Assistant
(b) Inefficient, Dextrous
(c) Impending, Brewing
(d) Inappropriate, Compatible
(e) None of these
S15. Ans. (d)
Sol. The term ‘Incongruous’ means ‘not in harmony or keeping with the surroundings or other aspects of something’. Inappropriate and Compatible are synonym and antonym respectively of ‘incongruous’.

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