World Intellectual Property Day 2024, Theme, History and Significance

World Intellectual Property Day 2024

Every year, on April 26th, the world celebrates World Intellectual Property Day to raise awareness about the crucial role that intellectual property rights play in fostering innovation and creativity. The theme for World Intellectual Property Day 2024 recognizes the tremendous potential of young people to find innovative and better solutions that support the transition towards a more sustainable future. Each year, World Intellectual Property Day is commemorated to raise awareness regarding the importance of protecting intellectual property rights and emphasizing why they deserve safeguarding.

Across the globe, the youth are stepping up to address innovation challenges, using their boundless energy, ingenuity, curiosity, and creativity to chart a course toward a better tomorrow. These innovative, energetic, and creative minds are driving the necessary changes to move towards a more sustainable future. This article aims to provide a detailed explanation of the history of World Intellectual Property Day, the theme of World Intellectual Property Day 2024, and its significance. It will help you understand how intellectual property rights can support and empower the youth of tomorrow to create a better future for all.

World Intellectual Property Day 2024: Theme

The annual World Intellectual Property Day is observed globally on April 26th. This year’s theme for the occasion is “IP and the SDGs: Building our common future with innovation and creativity.” Various events and initiatives are organized to commemorate this day, with the aim of raising awareness about the significant role that intellectual property rights play in promoting innovation and creativity.

World Intellectual Property Day serves as a platform to shed light on how different forms of intellectual property rights, such as patents, trademarks, industrial designs, and copyrights, contribute to fostering an environment that encourages and rewards innovative and creative endeavors. It highlights the importance of these rights in providing incentives and protection for individuals and organizations to invest their time, resources, and efforts into developing new ideas, products, and solutions that can drive progress and benefit society as a whole.

Important Days in April 2024: List of National & International Days

World Intellectual Property Day 2024: History

World Intellectual Property Day was initiated in 2000 by the World Intellectual Property Organization with the aim of advocating for the promotion and safeguarding of innovative concepts, encompassing fields like music, art, trademarks, literature, and inventions. WIPO finds its roots in the 1883 signing of the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property, which laid the groundwork for safeguarding inventions, trademarks, and industrial designs. The formal establishment of WIPO came with the enactment of the Convention Establishing the World Intellectual Property Organization in 1970. Subsequently, in 1974, WIPO attained recognition as a specialized agency under the United Nations.

WIPO, as a specialized agency within the United Nations, endeavors to advocate for the global safeguarding and progression of intellectual property. Enforced in 1970, the WIPO Convention facilitates collaboration among member nations concerning intellectual property legislation, registration processes, and rights preservation.

Apart from the WIPO Convention, WIPO offers various services and resources dedicated to enhancing awareness of intellectual property and advocating for its protection. These encompass activities such as facilitating the registration and safeguarding of intellectual property, resolving cross-border disputes related to intellectual property, and establishing consistent standards and infrastructure for its protection.

World Intellectual Property Day 2024: Significance

The observance of World Intellectual Property Day facilitates a unique opportunity to bring together innovators, business owners, intellectual property offices, and various other stakeholders. This convergence allows them to explore and advocate for intellectual property solutions that can contribute to economic growth and social welfare. Moreover, the occasion aims to raise public consciousness about the crucial significance of safeguarding intellectual property rights and the pivotal role these rights play in nurturing an environment conducive to innovation and creative expression.

Celebrating World Intellectual Property Day 2024 holds particular importance in highlighting the necessity of robust intellectual property protection mechanisms. It also serves as a platform to promote and emphasize the vital role that intellectual property plays in fostering an ecosystem that encourages and rewards innovative and creative endeavors. The ultimate goal is to underscore the positive impact that intellectual property rights can have on driving progress and advancement across various domains.

Important Days in March 2024, National and International Dates_60.1

 

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SBI SO Salary 2024, Salary Structure, Perks and Allowances

SBI SO Salary

Every year, State Bank of India releases the notification to recruit candidates for the various positions of Specialist Officer in the different branches all across the country. The notification PDF comprises the detailed SBI SO Salary 2024 along with basic pay as well as the perks and allowances. The job profile of a Specialist Officer attracts many banking aspirants because of its lucrative salary structure and perks. In this article, we have discussed in detail the SBI SO Salary 2024.

SBI SO Salary 2024

State Bank of India offers a lucrative salary to the employees designated for the position of Specialist Officer including the basic pay and the allowances. The scale of pay varies Grade-wise for the regular as well as contractual posts such as Deputy Manager, IT Officer, Relationship Manager, Vice President, etc. Aspirants can refer the given article for the detailed SBI Specialist Officer Salary 2024, Perks, Allowances, Job Profile, and Career Growth.

SBI SO Salary Structure

The table below provides a detailed breakdown of the SBI SO Salary Structure 2024, categorized by different positions. It offers candidates complete information on the salary packages along with grade and scale of pay.

SBI SO Salary 2024: Salary Structure
Grade(Regular Position) Pay Scale
JMGS I Basic Pay: 36000-1490/7-46430-1740/2-49910-1990/7/-63840
MMGS II Basic Pay: 48170-1740/1-49910-1990/10-69810
MMGS III Basic Pay: 63840-1990/5-73790-2220/2-78230
SMGS IV Basic Pay: 76010-2220/4-84890-2500/2-89890
SMGS V Basic Pay: 89890-2500/2-94890-2730/2-100350

The Annual Cost to Company (CTC) is flexible and will be determined based on the candidate’s experience, current earnings in their current job, and the location of their posting. The CTC package consists of 70% fixed components and 30% variable pay. There will be an annual increment in the CTC, with increments of 5%, 6.5%, and 7% for the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd annual increments, respectively.

SBI SO Salary Perks & Benefits

Apart from the salary, there are various perks and allowances provided to SBI SO. Candidates can check below the complete perks & allowances.

  • House Rent Allowance
  • City Compensatory Allowance
  • Special Allowance
  • Leave Travel Allowance
  • Dearness Allowance
  • Conveyance Allowance
  • Medical Allowance
  • Pension Fund
  • Medical Facility

SBI SO Salary: Job Profile & Promotion

Aspirants selected for the position of Specialist Officer in State Bank of India must be familiar with the job responsibilities. The job profile of SO entirely depends upon the position at which they are designated. The common SBI SO Job Profile has been discussed in the given section.

  • Communicate with the customers and business partners to evaluate and figure out the purpose.
  • As per the business requirements, the specialist officers point out the specific field related operations.
  • Handle the system/server installation, configuration, and monitoring.
  • If in any of the tasks there arises any problem, then the specialist officers look into it and solve it.
  • After receiving data from various departments, specialist officer prepare the status report and submit to the assigned authority.

SBI SO Salary: Know The Annual Package

State Bank of India offers a lucrative salary to the specialist officers and that is the reason why candidates apply for the esteemed position. The annual package of a SBI SO varies post-wise as the pay scale differs grade-wise. The annual package is also different because of the perks and allowances as it depends on the location of posting, scale, etc. Candidates must have a note of the minimum and maximum annual package for the post they are applying.

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SBI SO Recruitment 2023 Notification out for 217 Vacancies_80.1

SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Paper PDFs with Solutions

SBI Clerk Previous Year Papers

To practice for the SBI clerk exam, candidates must practice with the SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Papers which will help them understand the questions asked in the exam, types of repetitive questions, new types of questions, difficulty level of questions, etc. In simple words, we can say that a candidate with proper strategy and a set of some SBI Clerk Previous Year Papers can easily crack the SBI clerk exam.

SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Paper will help the students to understand the type of questions that have been asked in past years. In this article, we have provided the authentic SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Papers along with their solution PDFs. Go through this post and escalate your chances of getting selected.

SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Papers With Solutions

The candidates are advised to attempt the SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Paper as it will give the candidates a better understanding of the level of SBI Clerk Prelims and Mains Exam. For better revision and preparation, practising the previous years’ question papers is ideal for the candidates. In this article, we will be looking at the previous year’s question papers of the SBI Clerk. The SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Paper PDFs have been prepared with extreme authenticity and students can easily download them to strengthen their preparations.

SBI Clerk Previous Years Question Papers Analysis Prelims and Mains

There is always a difference in the approach of the students in preparing for the banking exams that makes them stand different from others. And that difference is practice. Other than studying, a candidate must practice and analyze the previous year’s paper and mock tests. The SBI Clerk Previous Year Paper is the best way to practice for the SBI Clerk exam. Here are the memory-based papers of the SBI Clerk so that nothing important is left behind to study in getting the desired job.

SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Paper 2022 (Mains)

As the exam dates are announced for the Mains Exam of  SBI Clerk, candidates must download the SBI Clerk Previous Year questions of the mains exam of 2022.

SBI Clerk Mains Previous Year Question Paper 2022
SBI Clerk Mains Previous Year Paper 2022 PDF Download Now

SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Paper 2021 (Mains)

Here, SBI Clerk Mains Previous Year Question Paper 2021 with the solutions.

SBI Clerk Mains Previous Year Question Paper 2021
SBI Clerk Mains Previous Year Paper 2021 PDF Download Now

SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Paper 2020 (Mains)

We are providing you with the SBI Clerk Mains Previous Year Question Paper and exam questions asked in the mains examination in the year 2020.

SBI Clerk Mains Previous Year Question Paper 2020
SBI Clerk Mains Previous Year Paper 2020 PDF Download Now

SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Paper 2019 (Mains)

We are providing you with the SBI Clerk Mains previous year’s question paper and exam questions asked in the mains examination in the year 2019.

SBI Clerk Mains Previous Year Question Paper 2019
SBI Clerk Mains Previous Year Paper 2019 Question PDF Download Now
SBI Clerk Mains Previous Year Paper 2019 Solution PDF Download Now

SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Paper 2018 (Mains)

We are providing you with the SBI clerk Mains Previous Year Question Paper and exam questions asked in the mains examination in the year 2018.

SBI Clerk Mains Previous Year Question Paper 2018
SBI Clerk Mains Previous Year Paper 2018 Question PDF Download Now
SBI Clerk Mains Previous Year Paper 2018 Solution PDF Download Now

SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Paper 2016 (Mains)

We are providing you with the SBI Clerk previous year’s question paper and exam questions asked in the main examination in the year 2016.

SBI Clerk Mains Previous Year Question Paper 2016
SBI Clerk Previous Year Paper 2016 Question PDF Download Now
SBI Clerk Previous Year Paper 2016 Solution PDF Download Now

SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Paper 2022 (Prelims)

From the following table, candidates can download the SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Paper which is based on 2022. This given PDF consists of questions as well as solutions.

SBI Clerk Prelims Previous Year Question Paper 2022
SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Paper 2022 Download PDF

SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Paper 2021 (Prelims)

Here, the SBI Clerk Prelims Previous Year Question Paper 2021 with the solutions.

SBI Clerk Prelims Previous Year Question Paper 2021
SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Paper 2021 Download PDF

SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Paper 2020 (Prelims)

In the table mentioned below, there are the section-wise SBI Clerk Prelims previous year’s question paper and exam questions asked in the examination for the year 2020. This will be helpful in your exam preparation.

SBI Clerk Prelims Previous Year Paper 2020
Subject Question PDF Solution PDF
Reasoning Ability Download Now Download Now
Quantitative Aptitude Download Now  Download Now
English Language Download Now Download Now

SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Paper 2019 (Prelims)

Same with the year 2019, we are providing you with the section-wise SBI Clerk Prelims Previous year question papers and exam questions asked in the prelims examination in the year 2019.

SBI Clerk Prelims Previous Year Paper 2019
Subject Question PDF Solution PDF
Reasoning Ability Download Now Download Now
Quantitative Aptitude Download Now Download Now
English Language Download Now Download Now

SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Paper 2018 (Prelims)

While practicing with the previous year’s paper, aspirants get familiar with the question and the exam pattern and have a look at the previous year questions asked in the prelims examination of SBI Clerk 2018.

SBI Clerk Prelims Previous Year Paper- 2018
Subject Question PDF Solution PDF
Reasoning Ability Download Now Download Now
Quantitative Aptitude Download Now Download Now
English Language Download Now Download Now

SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Paper 2016 (Prelims)

In the table mentioned below, there is the section-wise SBI Clerk Prelims Previous Year Question Paper.

SBI Clerk Prelims Previous Year Paper 2016
Subject Question PDF Solution PDF
Reasoning Ability Download Now  Download Now
Quantitative Aptitude Download Now Download Now
English Language Download Now Download Now

How we can Attempt SBI Clerk Memory Based Question Paper?

Aspirants can attempt the SBI Clerk Memory Based Question Paper for Prelims and Mains from the above provided link. The Previous Year Question Paper PDFs has been given from the year 2016 to 2022. Aspirants can attempt the SBI Clerk Memory Based Question Paper by the following ways:

  • Select a place where you can concentrate and attempt the SBI Clerk Memory Based Question Paper without distractions.
  • Attempt the SBI Clerk Memory Based Question Paper same as that in the actual examination.
  • Try to maintain a balance between the accuracy and speed while attempting the questions.
  • Regularly practice SBI Clerk Memory Based Question Paper to improve speed, accuracy, and confidence.

Benefits of Preparing with SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Papers

Preparing with SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Papers offers several benefits that can significantly enhance the chances of success in the examination.

  • SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Papers provide insight into the exam pattern comprising the number of sections, types of questions, and distribution of marks.
  • By analyzing SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Papers aspirants can understand the question patterns, frequently asked topics, and important concepts.
  • Attempting previous year question papers helps to develop effective time management strategies.
  • Solving SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Papers helps to assess the strength and weaknesses in various topics and sections.
  • Regular practice with previous year papers enhances the speed and accuracy in solving questions.
  • Solving more and more previous year question papers boost the confidence level of candidates and also reduces the exam anxiety and nervousness.

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Related Post
SBI Clerk 2024 Notification SBI Clerk Syllabus
SBI Clerk Salary SBI Clerk Cut Off

World Intellectual Property Day 2024, Theme, History and Significance - Part 3_10.1

Coding-Decoding Reasoning, Tricks, Solved Questions

Coding-Decoding Reasoning

Coding-Decoding is a crucial topic in reasoning sections of banking exams, including SSC, UPSC, and more. This topic tests candidates’ ability to decipher codes and decode using logical reasoning and pattern recognition. In this column, we shall explore the effective tips & tricks to solve problems of Coding-Decoding.

Coding-decoding is considered one of the highest-scoring topics, with a weightage of around 5-6 marks. The level of difficulty of coding-decoding questions varies depending on the type of exam. If you are a beginner and haven’t solved the coding-decoding questions before then it will take some time to solve the problems which is very normal so keep patience and continue practicing. Here we are going to provide you with the types of coding-decoding, questions, answers, explanations, etc.

What is Coding-Decoding?

Coding decoding is a part of the logical reasoning section used to encrypt words, numbers, and letters, or something a mixture of both, in specific patterns or codes using particular rules and regulations. The same decoding is the process of retrieving the word or number from the given codes.

Coding: Coding is a process used to encrypt a word, letter, number, or mixture of both in a particular code or pattern based on some set of rules.

Decoding: Decoding is the process that is used to decrypt the patterns into original forms from the given form.

Candidates can check the place value of the English alphabet in the given table.

Alphabet- Coding
Alphabet Code In Reverse Order
A 1 26
B 2 25
C 3 24
D 4 23
E 5 22
F 6 21
G 7 20
H 8 19
I 9 18
J 10 17
K 11 16
L 12 15
M 13 14
N 14 13
O 15 12
P 16 11
Q 17 10
R 18 9
S 19 8
T 20 7
U 21 6
V 22 5
W 23 4
X 24 3
Y 25 2
Z 26 1

 

Coding-Decoding Reasoning Questions, Tricks, Examples with Solution in Hindi

Types Of Coding-Decoding Reasoning

Questions appeared in the banking exams from coding-decoding are of various types. Candidates can check all the types of coding-decoding reasoning here.

Binary Coding-Decoding

In this type of coding-decoding decimal numbers are coded in the form of binary numbers such as 0 or 1. The number which has base 2 is known as a binary number. The binary number is made by 0’s and 1’s complements. So, a coded binary number consists of two processes. One is conversion of binary to decimal and another is decimal to binary.

Letters to Letters Coding-Decoding

In letter-letter coding, the candidate will need to get phrases from letters. Getting phrases from letters that we set up according to a certain sample or code is the subject of this segment on Letter-letter coding. In general, we are saying that Getting phrases from letters is an installation to choose the candidate’s capacity to decipher the guideline of thumb that codes a specific word/message and break the code. In this type of coding-decoding, the alphabet of words is added with various operations like addition, subtraction, etc.

Chinese Coding-Decoding

In these questions, all words have the same meaning but in different orders, candidates have to find out the code of every word.

Conditional Coding-Decoding

In this type of coding-decoding question, a few conditions and operations need to apply, candidates have to understand these conditions and then answer the questions.

Numbers to Numbers Coding-Decoding

In this type of coding-decoding question in the reasoning ability section, only numbers are used in various forms.

Letters to Numbers Coding-Decoding

In these types of questions, letters and numbers are used like CAT12, ABE45, etc.

Coding Decoding Reasoning Tricks

Coding Decoding Reasoning Tricks: The weightage of the questions asked from the coding-decoding reasoning topic is mostly 4-6 marks and though may seem time-consuming, they are easy to solve and this is a scoring topic of the reasoning section. Here we have provided some tips tricks & concepts to solve coding-decoding reasoning questions.

Coding Decoding Tips & Tricks

  • Try to understand the pattern of codes that are given to you in question. You can use the hit-and-trial method and check for various rules.
  • While solving the coding-decoding questions try to find out the relation between the two terms, the given word and its codes should be done first.
  • The first thing while attempting coding-decoding questions is to approach them step by step. Check the code and deduce the pattern. The pattern must be visible as soon as you see the code. Try and match the pattern/ logic by arranging and rearranging the letters of the codes.
  • You can use the elimination method to simplify the quote and remove the unnecessary values.
  • Solving a bunch of questions on daily quizzes will be helpful for you in your preparation.

Mistakes to Avoid in Coding-Decoding Reasoning

Coding-Decoding can be sometimes challenging, often prone to certain blunders that can affect the overall marks. To maximize performance in this topic, here are some common mistakes that can be avoided in Coding-Decoding

  • Neglecting the Coding Pattern: One of the most frequent mistakes is diving straight into decoding without thoroughly analyzing the coding pattern. Rushing through the question without understanding the logic behind the coding can lead to incorrect answers.
  • Misinterpreting Symbols or Characters: Symbols or characters may be used to represent letters, numbers, or words. Misinterpreting these symbols or applying incorrect substitutions can result in erroneous decoding.
  • Ignoring Reverse Coding: Reverse coding, or decoding the given code to identify the original word or phrase, is an essential aspect of Coding-Decoding reasoning. Failing to consider reverse coding can limit your ability to accurately decode messages. Always explore both forward and reverse coding possibilities to ensure a comprehensive understanding of the coding scheme.
  • Not Checking for Consistency: Neglecting to check for consistency across all conditions can result in incorrect decoding. Verify that the decoded message aligns with all the given rules or conditions to ensure accuracy.
  • Lack of Practice: Practice is key to mastering Coding-Decoding reasoning. Failing to devote sufficient time to practice and familiarize yourself with different coding patterns and techniques can hinder your performance.

Coding-Decoding Example With Solution

Here, we are discussing the coding-decoding questions along with a brief explanation. Aspirants can check how to solve these questions with tricks to answer all coding-decoding questions.

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

In a certain code language,

‘he deserves suffer Pain’ is written as ‘ma co te mx,

‘Pain is a healing sin’ is written as ‘mx mh la sa ox’,

‘Man suffer Pain’ is written as ‘mx te kl’

‘deserves is sin of Man’ is written as ‘kl mh co ze ox’.

Q1. What does the code ‘la’ stand for in the given code language?

(a) Pain

(b) is

(c) a

(d) healing

(e) Either (c) or (d)

Q2. What is the code for ‘sin’?

(a) kl

(b) ox

(c) mh

(d) ze

(e) Either (b) or (c)

Q3. In the given code language, which of the following means ‘a healing sin’?

(a) la sa mh

(b) sa la ox

(c) ox sa mh

(d) Cannot be determined

(e) mx mh la

Q4. What does the code ‘co’ stand for?

(a) deserves

(b) suffer

(c) he

(d) Pain

(e) Either (a) or (c)

Q5. What is the code for ‘he’ in the given code language?

(a) ma

(b) te

(c) co

(d) mx

(e) mh

Directions (6-10): Study the following information to answer the given questions.

In a certain code language,

‘loud of Speaker minister’ is written as `ga gmo til su’

‘hard false loud promise on’, is written as ‘kil zo gmo ye na’

‘minister false political energy’ is written as `zo ra til da’

‘political conclude of promise’ is written as `da ga nic kil’.

Q6. What is the code for ‘on’?

(a) ye

(b) na

(c) zo

(d) Either na or zo

(e) Either ye or na

Q7. What does `su’ stand for?

(a) minister

(b) loud

(c) of

(d) Speaker

(e) None of these

Q8. What is the code for ‘energy loud conclude’?

(a) nic ye til

(b) gmo ra nic

(c) ra ga gmo

(d) da ra nic

(e) None of these

Q9. Which of the following does `kil til na’ stand for?

(a) promise of loud

(b) hard loud promise

(c) minister promise hard

(d) minister promise on

(e) Either (c) or (d)

Q10. Which of the following may represent ‘beyond limits of loud’?

(a) ga zo til da

(b) ga ba gmo nee

(c) ga ba nic kil

(d) gmo ba til ra

(e) None of these

Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

‘dumb monkeys are actors’ is coded as ‘la pa zi ta’

‘joker monkeys are dumb’ is coded as ‘pa zi la sa’

‘flower are red fool’ is coded as ‘na hi ga pa’

‘dumb pins and flower’ is coded as ‘zi mi jo ga’

Q11. How will ‘dumb joker flower’ be coded in the given language?

(a) zi la sa

(b) zi sa ga

(c) sa mi jo

(d) pa zi mi

(e) None of these

Q12. How will ‘flower are fool’ be coded in the given language?

(a) zi la sa

(b) zi sa ga

(c) sa mi jo

(d) pa zi mi

(e) None of these

Q13. What does ‘pa’ stands for?

(a) joker

(b) flower

(c) are

(d) pins

(e) None of the these

Q14. Which of the following will be coded as ‘na hi la’ in the given language?

(a) monkeys are fool

(b) red fool monkeys

(c) joker monkeys flower

(d) red dumb flower

(e) none of these

Q15. What is the code for ‘la’ stand for?

(a) monkeys

(b) flower

(c) joker

(d) fool

(e) none of these.

Solutions

S1. Ans.(e)

World Intellectual Property Day 2024, Theme, History and Significance - Part 3_12.1

S2. Ans.(e)

S3. Ans.(d)

S4. Ans.(a)

S5. Ans.(a)

S6. Ans.(e)

World Intellectual Property Day 2024, Theme, History and Significance - Part 3_13.1

S7. Ans.(d)

S8. Ans.(b)

S9. Ans.(e)

S10. Ans.(b)

S11. Ans.(b)

Sol.

World Intellectual Property Day 2024, Theme, History and Significance - Part 3_14.1

S12. Ans.(e)

S13. Ans.(c)

S14. Ans.(b)

S15. Ans.(a)

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Bank of Baroda SO Recruitment 2023 Apply for 157 Vacancies_80.1

TSC Bank Syllabus 2024, Assistant Manager Exam Pattern

Tripura State Cooperative Bank Syllabus 2024

The Tripura State Cooperative Bank Limited has scheduled the online examination for the position of Assistant Manager, General Clerk, and Multi Tasking Staff(MTS) on 05 May 2024. To qualify and secure a seat for the given exam, candidates need to be acquainted with the Syllabus and Exam Pattern. The syllabus comprises the same sections that asked in the other competitive examinations. Through the given post, we have discussed the Tripura State Cooperative Bank Syllabus 2024 in a detailed manner.

TSCB Assistant Manager Syllabus & Exam Pattern 2024

The important requisites to prepare for the Tripura State Cooperative Bank Exam 2024 are syllabus and exam pattern. TSC Bank Assistant Manager Syllabus provides a complete overview of the following subjects, Financial & Computer Awareness, Awareness On Credit Cooperatives, English Language, Reasoning Ability, and Quantitative Aptitude. An aspiring candidate should prepare strictly according to the TSCB Syllabus so that all the important topics are covered.

TSC Bank Exam Pattern

The Tripura State Cooperative Bank Limited will conduct the exam online for recruiting aspirants for the various posts such as Assistant Manager, Clerk, and MTS. The questions asked in the paper will be objective type and candidates will have to individually obtain the minimum qualifying marks for each of the sections as well as overall to qualify for the examination. There is negative marking and one-fourth or 0.25 marks assigned to a particular question will be deducted for each wrong answer.

TSC Bank Assistant Manager Exam Pattern

The examination pattern for the recruitment of Assistant Manager by the TSC Bank has been discussed below. A total of 160 questions will be asked for a maximum of 160 marks and time allotted for each specific section varies.

TSC Bank Exam Pattern For Assistant Manager
Sections No. Of Questions Maximum Marks Time Duration
Financial & Computer Awareness 30 30 20 Minutes
Awareness On Credit Cooperatives 10 10
English Language 40 40 30 Minutes
Reasoning Ability 40 40 35 Minutes
Quantitative Aptitude 40 40 35 Minutes
Total 160 160 120 Minutes

TSCB Exam Pattern 2024 For Clerk

Candidates submitting their application forms for the post of Clerk must be familiar with the exam pattern. In the time period of 120 minutes, candidates will have to attempt 160 questions for 160 marks.

TSC Bank Clerk Exam Pattern 
Sections No. Of Questions Maximum Marks Time Duration
 Computer Awareness 30 30 20 Minutes
Awareness On Credit Cooperatives 10 10
English Language 40 40 30 Minutes
Reasoning Ability 40 40 35 Minutes
Quantitative Aptitude 40 40 35 Minutes
Total 160 160 120 Minutes

TSC Bank Exam Pattern 2024 For Multi Tasking Staff

The TSC Bank Exam Pattern 2024 for Multi Tasking Staff(MTS) has been mentioned below. The online exam comprises 100 questions for a maximum of 100 marks and to solve them time period allotted will be 120 Minutes.

TSC Bank Multi Tasking Staff(MTS) Exam Pattern 
Sections No. Of Questions Maximum Marks Time Duration
Knowledge Of English Language 30 30 40 Minutes
Numerical Ability 40 40 50 Minutes
General Awareness 30 30 30 Minutes
Total 100 100 120 Minutes

TSCB Syllabus 2024

TSCB Syllabus 2024 comprises the following sections: Financial & Computer Awareness, Awareness On Credit Cooperatives, English Language, Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, and General Awareness. Aspirants can refer below for the detailed TSC Bank Syllabus 2024 subject-wise and then can strategize their preparation accordingly.

TSC Bank Syllabus 2024 For Reasoning Ability

  • Alphabet/ Number/ Symbol Series
  • Inequality
  • Syllogism
  • Order & Ranking
  • Coding-Decoding
  • Direction-sense
  • Blood-Relation
  • Circular/ Triangular/ Rectangular/ Square Seating Arrangement
  • Linear Seating Arrangement
  • Box Based Puzzle
  • Floor or Floor-Flat Based Puzzles
  • Day/ Month/ Year-Based Puzzle
  • Comparison/ Categorized/ Uncertain Puzzles Miscellaneous

TSC Bank Assistant Manager Syllabus 2024 For Quantitative Aptitude

  • Simplification & Approximation: BODMAS, Square & Cube, Square & cube root, Indices, fraction, percentage etc.
  • Number Series: Missing Number series, Wrong number series
  • Inequality: Linear equation, Quadratic equation, Quantity comparison
  • Arithmetic: Ratio and Proportion, Percentage, Number System and HCF and LCM, Average, Age, Partnership, Mixture and Alligation, Simple Interest, Compound Interest, Time and Work, Pipe and Cistern, Profit & Loss and Discount, Speed Time Distance, Boat And stream, Train, Mensuration 2D and 3D, Probability, Permutation and combination etc.
  • Data Interpretation: Table DI, Missing Table DI, Pie chart DI, Line chart DI, Bar chart DI, Mixed DI, Caselet

TSC Bank Syllabus 2024 For English Language

  • Reading Comprehension
  • Phrase rearrangement
  • Word swap: 3 words swap, 4 words swap
  • Word rearrangement
  • Match the column: 2 columns, 3columns
  • Connectors
  • Starters
  • Fillers: Double Sentence Blanks, Single Blanks, Double Blanks
  • Word usage
  • Sentence-based Error: find the correct one, find the incorrect one
  • Phrase replacement
  • Spelling error
  • Error correction
  • Idioms and phrases: Idioms and phrases usage, Idioms and phrases fillers
  • Cloze test: Fillers, Replacement
  • Sentence Rearrangement: One fixed, Conventional
  • One-word inference

TSCB Syllabus 2024 For Computer Awareness

  • Fundamentals of Computer [History, Types, etc.]
  • Generation of Computer
  • Hardware & Software [Operating System, Types of Software, Compiler, Interpreter, etc.]
  • Input & Output Device
  • Memory
  • Number System [Binary Number, Conversion, etc.]
  • Computer Language – Generation & its Type
  • DBMS – Basic Introduction & Software
  • Computer Network [TCP & OSI Model, Protocol, Topology, Methods of Communication, Networking Device and Components]
  • Introduction of Internet
  • Internet’s Keywords
  • Use of Internet [Internet Protocol, E-mail, Chatting, E-Commerce, Internet Browser & its shortcut key, etc.]
  • Network & Data Security [Firewall, Virus, Warm, Malware, Trojan Horse, Key logger, Spyware, Hacking, Phishing, Sniffing, Internet Security, Antivirus, User: Identification, Authentication, Biometric, etc.]
  • Cyber Crime & Cyber Security
  • Multimedia- its component & Uses [Audio, Video, Streaming, Animation, Adobe Flash, etc.]
  • Introduction of MS Window
  • MS Office & its application [MS Word, MS PowerPoint, MS Excel – Uses & Shortcut keys]
  • Computer Shortcut keys
  • Computer Abbreviations

Tripura State Cooperative Bank Syllabus 2024 For General Awareness

  • Current Affairs
  • State Current Affairs
  • International Current Affairs
  • Banking Awareness
  • Economy
  • Sports News
  • Financial Awareness
  • Govt. Schemes/ Apps
  • Ranks and Reports
  • Defence News
  • Science News
  • Obituaries
  • Static Awareness

 

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IBPS Calendar 2023 Out, Download Exam Schedule PDF_80.1

RBI Assistant Notification 2024, Exam Date, Eligibility and Syllabus

RBI Assistant Notification 2024

The RBI Assistant exam stands as a fantastic opportunity for lakhs of aspirants seeking to embark on a career in such a renowned organization. With its prestigious reputation and promising career prospects, this exam draws the attention of individuals nationwide. In this column, we discuss the RBI Assistant Notification 2024 in detail including salary, syllabus, exam pattern, etc.

The Reserve Bank of India was established on April 1, 1935, under the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. It was conceptualized and formed based on the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission (also known as the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance). In 1949, the RBI was nationalized, and it became fully owned by the Government of India. Every year lakhs of candidates vie for the post of assistant offered by India’s Central Bank.

RBI Assistant 2024

The RBI hires Assistants through a two-stage selection process, consisting of Preliminary and Main Examinations. Additionally, candidates who pass the Main stage must undergo a Language Proficiency Test (LPT). The notification for RBI Assistant 2024 recruitment is anticipated to be issued around August/September 2024.

Securing a role as an Assistant in the RBI presents a promising and rewarding career trajectory within the banking domain. It offers candidates a unique opportunity for professional growth, coupled with the assurance of job security and stability. By excelling in this examination, candidates can pave their way towards a fulfilling career in one of the most influential financial institutions in the nation. Interested individuals can refer to this article for comprehensive details regarding the recruitment process for RBI Assistants in 2024.

RBI Assistant Notification 2024: Summary

The Reserve Bank of India is expected to issue a notification for Assistant positions, presenting a significant employment prospect for individuals holding a bachelor’s degree. The RBI Assistant 2024 notification offers an excellent opportunity for job seekers aiming to enter the banking sector, anticipated to be released in August/September. Below is a comprehensive summary of the RBI Assistant 2024 recruitment, outlined in a table format.

RBI Assistant 2024
Organization Reserve Bank of India
Exam Name RBI Assistant Exam 2024
Post Assistant
Vacancy
Category Bank Job
Application Mode Online
Educational Qualification Graduation
Age Limit Min. Age- 20 Years | Max. Age- 28 Years
Selection Process Prelims & Mains
RBI Assistant 2024 Exam Date
Medium of Exam English & Regional Language
Job Location Respected Office a candidate applying for
Number of Questions Prelims- 100 | Mains- 200
Total Marks Prelims- 100 | Mains- 200
Official Website www.rbi.org.in
Official WhatsApp Channel Join Official Channel
Official Telegram Channel Join Official Channel

RBI Assistant 2024: Important Dates

After the notification is issued in August/September 2024, essential dates such as the examination date, notification release date, and application form filling dates for RBI Assistant 2024 will be made known. It is recommended that candidates save or bookmark the post to remain informed about the RBI Assistant Exam Date 2024.

RBI Assistant 2024 Notification PDF Link

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) will soon release the official notification for the recruitment of Assistant positions through its website @www.rbi.org.in. This notification will be available in the form of a PDF document and will provide comprehensive details of the various aspects of the recruitment process. It will outline the number of vacancies available, the eligibility criteria that candidates must fulfill, the selection procedure, the examination pattern, the salary structure, and other relevant information.

Aspiring candidates are strongly advised to regularly visit the RBI’s official website and keep a close watch for the release of this crucial notification. It would be prudent for them to bookmark the relevant page or section to ensure they remain updated with the latest information regarding the dates for RBI Assistant Notification  2024. Staying informed about the notification’s release will enable candidates to initiate their preparation and application process promptly, thereby enhancing their chances of securing the coveted Assistant position within the esteemed Reserve Bank of India.

RBI Assistant Notification (Previous Year Notification PDF)

RBI Assistant Notification 2024 PDF [Link is Inactive]

RBI Assistant 2024 Vacancy

In the RBI Assistant Notification 2024, details regarding the vacancies will be provided, outlining the total number of vacancies segregated based on different criteria. With fierce competition among prospective candidates for RBI assistant positions, it’s vital to understand the total vacancies and their allocation. Presented below is a table presenting the vacancy information for the Previous Year’s RBI Assistant positions.

RBI Assistant Vacancies (Previous Year)
Office Reserved Vacancies
SC ST OBC EWS GEN Total
Ahmedabad 0 2 4 1 6 13
Bengaluru 11(2) 1 18 5 23 58
Bhopal 0 6 0 1 5 12
Bhubaneswar 2 8(6) 2 1 6 19
Chandigarh 5 1(1) 5 2 8 21
Chennai 1 0 3 1 8 13
Guwahati 1 8 4 2 11 26
Hyderabad 2 1 4 1 6 14
Jaipur 0 1 1 0 3 5
Jammu 4 0 3 1 10 18
Kanpur & Lucknow 12 1 9 5 28 55
Kolkata 5 4 0 2 11 22
Mumbai 0 15 0 10 76 101
Nagpur 0 6 3 1 9 19
New Delhi 1 0 8 2 17 28
Patna 1(1) 1 3 1 4 10
Thiruvananthapuram & Kochi 0 1(1) 4 1 10 16
Total 45(3) 56(8) 71 37 241 450(11)

RBI Assistant 2024 Eligibility Criteria

Candidates must familiarize themselves with the RBI Assistant eligibility criteria for the 2024 recruitment. To be eligible for RBI Assistant 2024, candidates must satisfy certain requirements, encompassing factors like age limit, educational qualifications, and nationality. Details regarding the eligibility criteria, such as age restrictions and educational prerequisites, are outlined below.

  • Educational Qualification.
  • Age Limit.
  • Nationality

RBI Assistant 2024 Educational Qualification

Aspiring candidates for RBI Assistant 2024 must meet the specified Educational Qualifications. Additionally, applicants targeting a particular recruiting office must demonstrate fluency in the language spoken in that state or any of the states under that office’s jurisdiction. Proficiency in the language entails competence in reading, writing, speaking, and understanding it.

  • Candidates should have a Graduation Degree from a recognized university or equivalent.
  • A candidate belonging to the Ex-servicemen category (except dependents of ex-servicemen) should either be a graduate from a recognized University or should have passed the matriculation or its equivalent examination of the Armed Forces and rendered at least 15 years of defence service.

RBI Assistant 2024 Age Limit

The minimum and maximum age limit for RBI Assistant 2024 is given below (According to the previous year’s notification):

  • Minimum Age- 20 Years.
  • Maximum Age- 28 Years

As mentioned in the RBI Assistant Notification PDF (previous year), age relaxation is for candidates of certain categories. Here are the details on upper-age relaxation as mentioned in the detailed notification.  

RBI Assistant 2024 Age Relaxation
S. No Category Relaxation in Age
(i) Scheduled Caste / Scheduled Tribe (SC / ST) By 5 years, i.e., up to 33 years
(ii) Other Backward Classes (OBC) By 3 years, i.e., up to 31 years
(iii) Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) By 10 years (GEN/EWS), 13 years (OBC) & 15 years (SC/ST)
(iv) Ex-Servicemen To the extent of service rendered by them in the Armed Forces plus an additional period of 3 years subject to a maximum of 50 years.
(v) Widows/divorced women/ women judicially separated who are not re-married Up to 35 years (40 years for SC/ST)
(vi) Candidates having work experience in the Reserve Bank of India To the extent of several years of such experience, subject to a maximum of 3 years.

RBI Assistant 2024 Nationality

A candidate must be either:
i. a citizen of India, or
ii. a subject of Nepal, or
iii. a subject of Bhutan, or
iv. a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st January 1962 intending to permanently settle in India, or
v. a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam intending to permanently settle in India. Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India. A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary may be admitted to the examination, but the offer of appointment may be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate is issued to him/her by the Government of India.

RBI Assistant 2024 Syllabus

Having a basic understanding of the exam syllabus is crucial for aspirants aiming to achieve high scores in exams. The RBI Assistant syllabus serves as the cornerstone of the exam, essential for candidates to excel. Below, aspirants can find an elaborate overview of the RBI Assistant Syllabus 2024.

Reasoning  Quantitative Aptitude Computer Knowledge English General Awareness
Direction Sense Ration & Proportion Fundaments of Computer Reading Comprehension. National Current Affairs
Arrangement CI & SI Future of Computers Cloze Test International Affairs
Puzzles Percentage Internet Word Swap Sports News
Coding-Decoding Profit & Loss DBMS Synonym & Antonym State CA
Logical Reasoning Discount Shortcut Keys Sentence Improvement Agreement & MoUs
Input-Output Average Computer Languages Fillers Awards & Honors
Data Sufficiency Data Interpretation MS Office Error Spotting Summits & Conferences
Order Ranking Partnership MS Excel Connectors National Awards
Inequality Simplification & Approximation MS Access Paragraph Completion Defence News
Blood relation Time & Work Input & Output devices Para jumble Science & Tech
Syllogism Boats & Stream Networking Spelling Error Banking Awareness

RBI Assistant 2024 Salary

RBI offers an attractive and competitive salary package to its employees. Below are the key highlights regarding the salary structure for RBI Assistants and candidates can check more details related to RBI Assistant Salary 2024.

Selected Candidates will draw a starting basic pay of ₹20,700/- per month on the scale of ₹20700– 1200 (3) – 24300 – 1440 (4) – 30060 – 1920 (6) – 41580 – 2080 (2) – 45740 – 2370 (3) – 52850– 2850 (1) – 55700 and other allowances, as admissible from time to time. At present, the initial Monthly Gross Emoluments (without HRA) for the Assistant will be approximately ₹47,849/-.

**A House Rent Allowance of 15% of Pay will be paid to them, additionally, if they are not staying in the Bank’s accommodation.

RBI Assistant 2024 Selection Process

To clear the RBI Assistant exam, students will have to clear the complete selection process of the RBI Assistant Notification, which consists of the following stages:

  • Prelims Exam
  • Mains Exam

For both of the following phases, the complete exam pattern is given below.

RBI Assistant 2024 Exam Pattern

The RBI Assistant Exam 2024 consists of two stages: Preliminary and Main. Importantly, there is no interview phase in the RBI Assistant Exam. The exam is conducted annually nationwide in an online computer-based format.

Candidates who successfully pass the RBI Assistant preliminary examination are qualified to take the RBI Assistant mains examination, followed by a test in the local language. However, it is essential to qualify in both the RBI Assistant Prelims and Mains Exam. Below, we offer additional information regarding the exam pattern for both the Prelims and Mains Exam of the RBI Assistant.

RBI Assistant 2024 Prelims Exam Pattern

The preliminary exam pattern for the RBI Assistant 2024 exam is explained in the table form below.

RBI Assistant 2024 Prelims Exam Pattern
S. No. Sections No. of Questions Maximum Marks Duration
1 English Language 30 30 20 minutes
2 Quantitative Aptitude 35 35 20 minutes
3 Reasoning Ability 35 35 20 minutes
Total 100 100 60 minutes

Important Points to Remember:

  • There is a negative marking of 0.25 mark for each wrong answer.
  • There is sectional timing of 20 minutes for each section.

RBI Assistant 2024 Mains Exam Pattern

The RBI Assistant Mains Exam Pattern 2024 is given below in the following table.

RBI Assistant 2024 Mains Exam Pattern
Name of Test No. of Question Maximum Marks Duration
Test Of English Language 40 40 30 minutes
Test of Reasoning 40 40 30 minutes
Test Of Computer Knowledge 40 40 20 minutes
Test Of General Awareness 40 40 25 minutes
Test of Numerical Ability 40 40 30 minutes
Total 200 200 135 minutes

Important Points to Remember for RBI Assistant Mains exam:

  • The Total Time Allowed: 135 Minutes
  • Total Question: 200 Questions
  • Negative marking- 0.25 Marks

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Letters & Essays Asked in Bank Mains Exam_80.1

Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC)

Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC)

Many of us maintain bank accounts across different banks, where our lifelong savings are securely held. These funds hold significant value for us, serving as both psychological reassurance and a financial resource for future needs. However, it’s known that banks utilize these deposits to lend to businesses and invest in financial markets. Like any enterprise, banks are susceptible to economic cycles and fluctuations in business. In such circumstances, one may question the fate of our savings if a bank encounters difficulties in repaying deposited funds. In India, to safeguard the interests of the common citizen, the government established the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) under the DICGC Act of 1961. This article provides comprehensive coverage of the DICGC and its role in protecting deposits.

Establishment of DICGC

The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) was established on July 15, 1978. The idea of insuring deposits held with banks first gained attention in 1948, following banking crises in Bengal. In 1949, the concept was revisited for reconsideration, and in 1950, the Rural Banking Enquiry Committee also supported the notion.

It was after the collapse of the Palai Central Bank Ltd. that the Reserve Bank of India and the Central Government gave serious thought to the concept in 1960. On August 21, 1961, the Deposit Insurance Corporation (DIC) Bill was introduced in the Parliament. Subsequently, after being passed by both houses, the Bill received the President’s assent on December 7, 1961, and the Deposit Insurance Act of 1961 came into force on January 1, 1962.

Initially, the functioning of the scheme was extended to commercial banks, including the State Bank of India, its subsidiaries, other commercial banks, and branches of foreign banks operating in India. The introduction of deposit insurance aimed to instill confidence in the banking system and protect depositors’ interests.

Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation: Insured Amount

With the announcement through the budget of 2020 and subsequent amendments to the DICGC Act, of 1961. The insured amount for all types of deposits has been increased to 5 Lakh from the earlier initial insured amount of 1 Lakh. You must know for all types of bank accounts the DICGC Act, 1961 has insured 5 Lakh in any eventuality. The DICGC charges a premium amount from banks for this insured amount. The insurance is available for each bank account.

Let’s Understand this with an example:

  1. If you have a 5000 deposit in a bank and that bank goes bankrupt in the future then you will be given 5000 from DICGC.
  2. A maximum of ₹5,00,000 (after the budget of 2020-21) is insured for each user for both principal and interest amount. If the customer has accounts in different branches of the same bank, all of those accounts are clubbed together, and the total sum is insured to a maximum of ₹5,00,000.
  3. However, if there are more accounts in same bank, all of those are treated as a single account. The insurance premium is paid by the insured banks itself. This means that the benefit of deposit insurance protection is made available to the depositors or customers of banks free of cost.

Functions Of DICGC

  • Its primary function is to provide insurance of the deposited Money in all banks.
  • It provides insurance facility for all type of Saving deposit, Fixed deposit, Recurring deposit up to a maximum limit of 5 Lakh for each separate deposits in a bank.
  • The deposits with Regional Rural Bank (RRB) are also covered by DICGC.
  • All Scheduled commercial Banks & Cooperative Banks are covered under DICGC.
  • It also covers the insurance of foreign banks which is running in India also be covered under DICGC.
  • It also covers the insurance of Indian Banks which is functioning outside India.
  • Primary Agricultural Credit Society, Cooperative banks from Meghalaya, Chandigarh, Lakshadweep & Dadra & Nagar Haveli are some of the exceptions which are not covered by DICGC.

Types of Deposit covered under DICGC –

  • Saving Bank Deposits
  • Fixed deposits
  • Recurring deposits
  • It also include some exception which is listed below –
  • It won’t accept Deposits for Foreign Governments
  • The deposits by Indian Government & State Govt. also not accepted under this Act.
Related Articles 
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Important Days in March 2024, National and International Dates_60.1

IBPS Clerk Mains Result 2023 Out, Direct Final Result Link_80.1

 

 

100+ Important Current Affairs 2024 Questions & Answers

Current Affairs Questions

In preparation for competitive exams, especially banking examinations, the current affairs segment holds immense significance. It is a crucial component in every exam and demands thorough attention during preparation. Current Affairs play a pivotal role not only in the mains of banking exams but also in descriptive writing and interviews, particularly for aspiring bank PO candidates. Banking exams notably prioritize the General Awareness section in the Mains examination, emphasizing the importance of staying updated with current events.

The current affairs section stands out as a crucial segment in bank examinations, covering a wide range of topics including general news, national events, awards, and general awareness. This section holds significance across all stages of the examinations, be it prelims or mains.

100 Current Affairs Questions & Answers

In this section, we will see the type of questions that are being asked in the previous examinations and what are some of the important current affairs questions for Bank Exams in 2024.

Q1. What is the key impact of the Lakshmana Tirtha River drying up on farmers in South Kodagu?

Sol. Farmers in South Kodagu are facing difficulties in irrigating their crops due to the drying up of the Lakshmana Tirtha River.

Q2. Which district in Telangana is home to the unique Iron Age megalithic site at Ooragutta?

Sol. The Iron Age megalithic site at Ooragutta is located near Bandala village in SS Tadvai mandal of Mulugu district, Telangana. It was discovered by a team of archaeologists, showcasing new types of monuments not found elsewhere in India.

Q3. How has premium payment been made more convenient for policyholders?

Sol.  Policyholders can now pay premiums in installments for convenience, enhancing affordability and accessibility.

Q4. After the merger, what position does HDFC Bank hold globally in terms of market capitalization?

Sol. Following the merger of HDFC Limited and HDFC Bank, HDFC Bank ranks fourth globally in terms of market capitalization. This consolidation positions HDFC Bank as a formidable entity on the global financial stage.

Q5. Which Korean leader is currently in power in North Korea?

Sol. Kim Jong Un is the current Supreme Leader of North Korea, succeeding his father, Kim Jong Il, in 2011. As the third generation of the ruling Kim dynasty, Kim Jong Un maintains a tight grip on power in North Korea and continues to pursue military advancements despite international pressure and sanctions.

Q6. What was the percentage increase in net direct tax collections for FY 2023-24 compared to the preceding fiscal year?

Sol. The provisional figures show that net direct tax collections for FY 2023-24 increased by 7.40% compared to the previous fiscal year.

Q7. What is the ultimate drainage destination of the Cauvery River?

Sol. According to the passage, the Cauvery River ultimately drains into the Bay of Bengal. Options a, c, d, and e present other bodies of water but are not mentioned as the drainage destination of the Cauvery River.

Q8 . Which Indian bank made its debut on the list of top 50 banks in the Asia-Pacific region in 2023?

Sol. The report highlights that ICICI Bank, the second-largest private sector bank in India, entered the list for the first.

Q9. How long does the Reserve Bank of India typically take to grant the payment aggregator license?

Sol. The article mentions that the Reserve Bank of India typically takes six months to grant the payment aggregator license to eligible entities.

Q10. Which country is North Korea’s main economic partner and source of economic lifeline?

Sol. Despite facing heavy international sanctions, North Korea maintains close economic ties with China. China serves as North Korea’s main economic partner and a crucial source of economic support, providing essential lifelines for the North Korean regime amidst economic challenges.

Q11. Who succeeded J.K. Shivan as the Managing Director & CEO of Dhanlaxmi Bank?

Sol. Ajith Kumar KK took over the role of Managing Director & CEO following J.K. Shivan’s tenure at Dhanlaxmi Bank.

Q12. Which ministry’s secretary serves as the convenor of the committee on LGBTQ+ community welfare?

Sol. Saurabh Garg, the Social Justice and Empowerment Secretary, serves as the convenor of the committee on LGBTQ+ community welfare.

Q13. What is the name of India’s planned space station set to be established by 2035?

Sol.  India’s planned space station, set to be established by 2035, is named ‘Bharatiya Antriksh Station,’ as mentioned by Chairman S. Somanath. This station will contribute to India’s presence in space exploration.

Q14. Which international law is emphasized by both India and the Philippines in the context of disputes in the South China Sea?

Sol. Both India and the Philippines emphasize adherence to international law, particularly the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), in the peaceful resolution of disputes in the South China Sea.

Q15. Which country’s banks dominated the list of top 10 banks in the Asia-Pacific region, according to the S&P Global report?

Sol. The report highlights that Chinese banks dominated the list, with six out of the top 10 banks in the Asia-Pacific region being Chinese. This indicates the significant influence and size of the Chinese banking sector in the region.

Q16. Which Indian bank made its debut on the list of top 50 Asia-Pacific banks in 2023, securing the 48th position?

Sol. ICICI Bank, the second-largest private sector bank in India, made its first appearance on the list in 2023, securing the 48th position. This reflects the bank’s impressive growth in assets and its increasing prominence in the Asia-Pacific banking sector.

Q17. Apart from CRED, which other companies have recently received the payment aggregator license?

Sol. Some companies that recently received the payment aggregator license include Razorpay, among others. This highlights Razorpay’s presence in the fintech industry and its commitment to enhancing digital payment solutions.

Q18 . What is the tagline of Bandhan Life’s new identity?

Sol. The tagline of Bandhan Life’s new identity is ‘Bharat Ki Udaan, Bandhan Se’, reflecting its commitment to nurturing and empowering the aspirations of India.

Q19. Who developed the creative concept for the ‘Link it, Forget it’ campaign?

Sol.  The creative concept for the ‘Link it, Forget it’ campaign was developed by DDB Mudra Group. This agency was responsible for creating engaging and relatable scenarios to illustrate the benefits of RuPay credit cards linked to UPI.

Q20. What initiative do the NCMC-enabled cards launched by Airtel Payments Bank align with?

Sol. Airtel Payments Bank’s NCMC-enabled cards are in line with India’s One Nation, One Card vision.

Q21. Which regulatory body imposed penalties on the co-operative banks based on deficiencies in regulatory compliance?

Sol. Ambuja The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed penalties on the co-operative banks for deficiencies in regulatory compliance.

Q22. Who developed the indigenous propulsion system for the missile?

Sol. The indigenous propulsion system for the missile was developed by GTRE, Bengaluru. This propulsion system demonstrated reliable performance during the test flight, marking a significant achievement in indigenous defense technology.

Q23. Who did General Manoj Pande interact with to discuss strengthening military cooperation between India and Uzbekistan?

Sol.  General Pande engaged in discussions with Major General Khalmukhamedov Shukhrat Gayratjanovich, emphasizing the importance of enhancing military cooperation between the two nations.

Q24. Which of the following roles were included in the assessment for the ‘Best Airport Staff’ award?

Sol. The assessment encompassed all customer-facing staff working at the airport, including immigration and security personnel. Their professionalism and effectiveness in ensuring smooth passenger flow and safety contributed to the recognition of GMR Hyderabad International Airport.

Q25. Which region was particularly mentioned by Francesco La Camera as being affected by the lack of renewable energy deployment?

Sol. Francesco La Camera noted that despite progress, the Global South still lacks adequate renewable energy deployment, emphasizing the need for stronger policy support and innovative financing mechanisms in this region.

Q26. What is India’s estimated population according to the UNFPA report?

Sol. According to the UNFPA report, India’s estimated population is 144.17 crore.

Q27. What is the primary reason cited for the IMF’s revised GDP growth projection for India in FY24-25?

Sol. The IMF attributes its revised GDP growth projection for India to strong domestic demand, indicating that robust public investment plays a significant role in driving economic growth in the forecasted period.

Q28 . Which country emerged as the top export market for Indian electronics goods during FY24?

Sol. According to Commerce Department officials, the United States was one of the top five export markets for Indian electronics goods during FY24.

Q29. Which organization organized the 16th World Future Energy Summit in Abu Dhabi?

Sol.  Masdar, the state-owned Abu Dhabi Future Energy Company, organized the summit, bringing together global leaders in sustainable energy and climate initiatives.

Q30. What role did the Indian Air Force play in monitoring the flight of the missile?

Sol. The Indian Air Force played a role in monitoring the flight of the missile by utilizing Su-30-Mk-I aircraft. These aircraft were used to monitor the missile’s trajectory and performance during the test.

Q31. Which rating agencies recently revised India’s GDP growth projection for FY24 to 7.8%?

Sol. These rating agencies recently revised India’s GDP growth projection for FY24 upwards to 7.8% due to strong domestic demand and sustained growth in business and consumer confidence levels.

Q32. What is the Finance Ministry’s proposed focus to combat cyber fraud?

Sol. The Finance Ministry’s proposed measures include advocating for stricter Know Your Customer (KYC) procedures and due diligence by banks and financial institutions to mitigate the risk of cyber fraud.

Q33. Which organization provides the e-RUPI voucher system integrated into CDP-SURAKSHA?

Sol.  The e-RUPI voucher system, integrated into CDP-SURAKSHA, is provided by NPCI. This system facilitates secure and cardless subsidy payments to farmers’ bank accounts, ensuring efficient and transparent financial transactions.

Q34. Which state in India experienced the highest rate of tree cover loss due to fires per year from 2001 to 2022?

Sol. Odisha had the highest annual rate of tree cover loss due to fires, averaging 238 hectares per year from 2001 to 2022. This highlights the significant impact of fire incidents on forest cover dynamics in the region.

Q35. Within how many years does Mahindra Susten, Hybrid Renewable Energy Project in Maharashtra, plan to commission the project?

Sol. Mahindra Susten plans to commission the project within two years, demonstrating its commitment to sustainability and timely execution.

Q36. When was Sheikh Ahmad Abdullah Al-Ahmad Al-Sabah appointed as the new Prime Minister of Kuwait?

Sol . Sheikh Ahmad Abdullah Al-Ahmad Al-Sabah was appointed as the new Prime Minister of Kuwait in April 2024 following the resignation of Sheikh Mohammed Sabah Al-Salem Al-Sabah

Q37. Which airport retained its position as the busiest airport globally in 2023, according to the ACI report?

Sol. According to the Airports Council International (ACI) report, Hartsfield-Jackson Atlanta International Airport maintained its position as the busiest airport globally in 2023. This airport in the United States consistently handles a significant volume of passenger traffic, securing its top ranking year after year.

Q38 . What action did the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) take regarding the Bank of Baroda World app?

Sol. In October 2023, the RBI directed Bank of Baroda to suspend onboarding new customers on its ‘BoB World’ mobile app due to material supervisory concerns, as stated under Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.

Q39. What is the total capacity of Mahindra Susten’s hybrid renewable energy project in Maharashtra?

Sol.  The project combines 101 MW wind and 52 MW solar capacity, totaling 150 MW.

Q40. Which sector has Canara Bank shown a higher appetite for loan growth in recent years?

Sol. Fitch notes Canara Bank’s higher appetite for loan growth in the agriculture sector in recent years. This indicates a strategic focus on financing agricultural activities, which could contribute to the bank’s overall loan portfolio diversification.

Q41. Which rating agencies recently revised India’s GDP growth projection for FY24 to 7.8%?

Sol. These rating agencies recently revised India’s GDP growth projection for FY24 upwards to 7.8% due to strong domestic demand and sustained growth in business and consumer confidence levels.

Q42. What is the Finance Ministry’s proposed focus to combat cyber fraud?

Sol. The Finance Ministry’s proposed measures include advocating for stricter Know Your Customer (KYC) procedures and due diligence by banks and financial institutions to mitigate the risk of cyber fraud.

Q43. Which organization provides the e-RUPI voucher system integrated into CDP-SURAKSHA?

Sol.  The e-RUPI voucher system, integrated into CDP-SURAKSHA, is provided by NPCI. This system facilitates secure and cardless subsidy payments to farmers’ bank accounts, ensuring efficient and transparent financial transactions.

Q44. Which state in India experienced the highest rate of tree cover loss due to fires per year from 2001 to 2022?

Sol. Odisha had the highest annual rate of tree cover loss due to fires, averaging 238 hectares per year from 2001 to 2022. This highlights the significant impact of fire incidents on forest cover dynamics in the region.

Q45. Within how many years does Mahindra Susten plan to commission the project?

Sol. Mahindra Susten plans to commission the project within two years, demonstrating its commitment to sustainability and timely execution.

Q46. When was Sheikh Ahmad Abdullah Al-Ahmad Al-Sabah appointed as the new Prime Minister of Kuwait?

Sol. Sheikh Ahmad Abdullah Al-Ahmad Al-Sabah was appointed as the new Prime Minister of Kuwait in April 2024 following the resignation of Sheikh Mohammed Sabah Al-Salem Al-Sabah

Q47. Which airport retained its position as the busiest airport globally in 2023, according to the ACI report?

Sol. According to the Airports Council International (ACI) report, Hartsfield-Jackson Atlanta International Airport maintained its position as the busiest airport globally in 2023. This airport in the United States consistently handles a significant volume of passenger traffic, securing its top ranking year after year.

Q48 . What action did the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) take regarding the Bank of Baroda World app?

Sol. In October 2023, the RBI directed Bank of Baroda to suspend onboarding new customers on its ‘BoB World’ mobile app due to material supervisory concerns, as stated under Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.

Q49. What is the total capacity of Mahindra Susten’s hybrid renewable energy project in Maharashtra?

Sol.  The project combines 101 MW wind and 52 MW solar capacity, totaling 150 MW.

Q50. Which sector has Canara Bank shown a higher appetite for loan growth in recent years?

Sol. Fitch notes Canara Bank’s higher appetite for loan growth in the agriculture sector in recent years. This indicates a strategic focus on financing agricultural activities, which could contribute to the bank’s overall loan portfolio diversification.

Q51. Which organization is spearheading the NS-25 mission?

Sol. The NS-25 mission is conducted by Blue Origin, a private aerospace company founded by Jeff Bezos, the founder of Amazon. Blue Origin is focused on making space travel accessible to civilians and advancing space exploration technologies.

Q52. Where is the fifth edition of Exercise DUSTLIK taking place?

Sol. This location in Uzbekistan is hosting the fifth edition of the joint military exercise between India and Uzbekistan.

Q53. Which country secured the 10th position in the World Cybercrime Index rankings?

Sol.  According to the World Cybercrime Index, India captured the 10th spot in the rankings, indicating its significance in the realm of cybercrime. This assessment is based on factors such as impact, professionalism of cybercriminals, and technical skills exhibited in cyber activities.

Q54. What is Moody’s Analytics’ forecast for India’s GDP growth in 2024?

Sol. Moody’s Analytics projects India’s GDP to expand by 6.1% in 2024, a slight increase from the 6% forecasted earlier. This indicates a moderate but positive outlook for the Indian economy’s growth trajectory.

Q55. Which country emerged as the fourth-largest exporter of digitally delivered services in 2023, according to the WTO report?

Sol. India’s exports of digitally delivered services stood at $257 billion in 2023, marking a 17 percent increase from the previous year, as per the WTO report. This growth outpaced major economies like China and Germany, positioning India as a significant player in the digital services sector.

Q56. Which financial institutions have backed Revolut India in its endeavors?

Sol. The text mentions that Revolut India is backed by Tiger Global and Softbank, indicating that these are the financial institutions supporting its operations.

Q57. According to the World Cybercrime Index, which two countries rank as the top hubs of cybercrime?

Sol. The World Cybercrime Index, compiled by top cybercrime experts, identifies Russia and Ukraine as the leading countries in terms of cybercriminal activity. This finding is based on surveys and expert insights, highlighting the prevalence of cybercrime originating from these regions.

Q58. Which factor contributed most to India’s inflationary pressures in February 2024?

Sol. Food inflation climbed to 7.8% in February 2024, primarily driven by factors such as vegetables, eggs, meat, and fish. This indicates that food prices were the main contributor to inflationary pressures during that period.

Q59. What percentage stake is Japan’s MUFG set to acquire in HDB Financial Services?

Sol.  Japan’s MUFG is poised to acquire a 20% stake in HDB Financial Services, a non-banking subsidiary of HDFC Bank in India. This significant investment highlights MUFG’s strategic interest in the Indian financial market and its confidence in HDB Financial’s future prospects.

Q60. What type of lender is HDB Financial Services?

Sol. HDB Financial Services is a non-banking financial company (NBFC), which means it engages in financial activities similar to banks but does not accept deposits from the public. As a major player in India’s shadow banking sector, HDB Financial offers various financial services such as lending, investment, and advisory services.

Q61. Which country ranks second in the number of Hepatitis B and C cases, according to the WHO’s report?

Sol. India ranks second globally in Hepatitis B and C cases, with 3.5 crore infections reported in the WHO’s 2024 Global Hepatitis Report. This underscores the significant burden of the disease in India and emphasizes the need for targeted interventions to address it.

Q62. What is the primary aim of the partnership between ICICI Lombard and Policybazaar?

Sol. The collaboration between ICICI Lombard and Policybazaar aims to leverage Policybazaar’s digital platform to enhance insurance distribution across India.

Q63. Which countries led in unicorn creation according to the Hurun Global Unicorn Index?

Sol. The US led the list with 703 unicorns, while China followed closely with 340 unicorns. This indicates that China and the US were the top countries in unicorn creation, highlighting their dominance in the global startup ecosystem.

Q64. Which segment saw a nearly 29% decrease in gross direct premium in FY24 compared to the previous year?

Sol. In FY24, the gross direct premium of specialized insurers was nearly 29% down from the previous year.

Q65. What was the value of the Credit Default Swap (CDS) trade conducted by State Bank of India and Standard Chartered Bank India under the new RBI norms?

Sol. This amount represents the value of the CDS trade executed between State Bank of India and Standard Chartered Bank India. This specific value is crucial as it demonstrates the scale and significance of the transaction in the financial market, indicating a substantial commitment by the involved parties.

Q66. What factor primarily contributed to India’s decline in unicorn creation in 2024, as per the Hurun Global Unicorn Index?

Sol. India’s slowdown in unicorn creation was mainly fueled by a lack of investment into startups, despite the stock market reaching record highs. This implies that despite favorable economic conditions, insufficient investment hindered the growth of unicorns in India.

Q67. Which country is believed to have influenced the extremists responsible for the Moscow attacks ­­­­——-?

Sol. The extremists involved in the Moscow attacks are suspected to have been influenced by Pakistani seminaries, as mentioned in the context provided.

Q68. Which principle is fundamental to WTO rules, ensuring equal treatment among member countries?

Sol. MFN treatment ensures that each member country receives the same trade advantages as the most-favored nation.

Q69. Which Indian public sector undertakings are involved in KABIL?

Sol. KABIL is a joint venture company comprising National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO), Hindustan Copper Limited (HCL), and Mineral Exploration and Consultancy Limited (MECL).

Q70. What demographic group bears half the burden of chronic Hepatitis B and C infections, according to the WHO’s report?

Sol. The WHO’s 2024 Global Hepatitis Report highlights that individuals aged 30–54 bear half the burden of chronic Hepatitis B and C infections. This demographic insight underscores the need for targeted healthcare strategies to address this public health challenge effectively.

Q71. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) projects CPI inflation for fiscal year 2024-25 at _____.

Sol. According to the RBI’s projection, the CPI inflation for fiscal year 2024-25 is expected to be 4.5%. This projection is based on a thorough analysis and consideration of various macroeconomic factors and trends in inflation.

Q72. How many startups will be selected to pitch during the matchmaking event between EU and Indian startups?

Sol. Twelve startups, six from each region, will be selected to pitch their innovations during the matchmaking event, providing an opportunity for collaboration and partnership.

Q73. What is the primary objective of the START Programme initiated by ISRO?

Sol.  The START program offers an introductory-level online training platform aimed at nurturing aspiring scientists and engineers in various areas of space science research.

Q74. The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed between Canara Bank and SINE, IIT Bombay, on __________.

Sol. SINE, IIT Bombay Collaborates with Canara Bank for Financing of Startups A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed between Canara Bank and the Society for Innovation & Entrepreneurship, (SINE), IIT Bombay on April 3 for extending financial assistance to Start-ups.

Q75. Who has been elected as Ireland’s youngest-ever Prime Minister?

Sol. Simon Harris, aged 37, has been elected as Ireland’s youngest-ever Prime Minister, succeeding Leo Varadkar. Harris’s nomination was confirmed by parliament with a vote of 88-69. He is a former health and higher education minister known for his role in Ireland’s initial response to the COVID-19 pandemic.

Q76. Who is the central bank governor leading the introduction of ZiG?

Sol.  John Mushayavanhu is the central bank governor spearheading the introduction of ZiG, emphasizing its structure and market-determined exchange rate to address economic instability.

Q77. What is Jayaraj Shanmugam’s primary area of expertise?

Sol. The passage mentions that Jayaraj Shanmugam is appointed as the Head of Global Airport Operations, indicating that his primary area of expertise lies in managing airport operations on a global scale.

Q78. How many non-flying employees did Air India lay off recently?

Sol. The passage mentions that Air India laid off more than 180 non-flying employees as part of organizational restructuring.

Q79. How did Akshay Bhatia secure his victory at the Valero Texas Open?

Sol. Akshay Bhatia clinched the Valero Texas Open title by triumphing in a thrilling sudden-death playoff against Denny McCarthy. Despite McCarthy’s strong challenge, Bhatia’s birdie on the first extra hole secured his victory in dramatic fashion.

Q80. Who is Sumit Nagal’s doubles partner at the Monte Carlo Masters?

Sol. Rohan Bopanna is Sumit Nagal’s doubles partner at the Monte Carlo Masters, where they are playing together. Options (a), (b), (d), and (e) mention other Indian tennis players who are not Nagal’s doubles partner at the tournament.

Q81. According to the 2022 WADA report, which country had the highest percentage of doping offenders based on samples collected?

Sol. The report revealed that out of 4,064 samples collected from Indian athletes, 127 individuals tested positive for banned substances, constituting 3.26% of the sample size.

Q82. Who won the Slovakia presidential election in 2024, solidifying the pro-Russian stance of the government?

Sol. In the 2024 Slovakia presidential election, Peter Pellegrini emerged victorious, reinforcing Prime Minister Robert Fico’s pro-Russian agenda. Pellegrini’s win signifies continuity in policies favoring closer ties with Russia, diverging from pro-Western positions.

Q83. Who has partnered with KarmaLife to offer micro-loans for gig workers?

Sol. SIDBI has agreed with KarmaLife, a fintech platform, to utilize its technology for providing micro loans to gig workers. This collaboration aims to support the financial inclusion of gig workers and enhance their access to formal institutional credit.

Q84. Under the bilateral trade agreement between India and the Maldives, what commodities are exempted from export restrictions to the Maldives for the fiscal year 2024-25?

Sol. Essential items such as eggs, potatoes, onions, rice, wheat flour, sugar, and dal. These commodities have been permitted for export to the Maldives without any existing or future restrictions, highlighting the significance of maintaining supply chains for necessities between the two countries.

Q85. What was the primary focus of the partnership announced between the United States and Britain regarding AI safety?

Sol. The partnership between the United States and Britain primarily aims to jointly develop advanced AI model testing procedures. This collaboration seeks to assess and mitigate risks associated with AI technologies, ensuring their safe deployment.

Q86. Who is the author of the book “The Idea of Democracy”?

Sol. Sam Pitroda, he is the renowned author behind “The Idea of Democracy,” a book that delves into the current state of democracy and its potential challenges, particularly in countries like India and the United States.

Q87. What is the total value of the contract signed by the Indian Ministry of Defence with Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) for the Akashteer system?

Sol. The Ministry of Defence signed a contract worth ₹1,982 crore with Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) for the procurement of the Akashteer system. This contract is aimed at enhancing the Indian Army’s air defence capabilities through the implementation of the indigenous Akashteer system.

Q88. Who has been appointed as the new CEO and Managing Director of Wipro, effective April 7, 2024?

Sol. Srinivas Pallia, he has been appointed as the new Chief Executive Officer and Managing Director of Wipro, succeeding Thierry Delaporte, effective from April 7, 2024.

Q89. Where was the coastal security exercise Sagar Kavach 01/24 conducted?

Sol. The two-day coastal security exercise, named Sagar Kavach 01/24, took place off the coast of the Lakshadweep Islands from April 1-2, 2024.

Q90. World Health Day is celebrated annually on April 7th, marking the founding date of the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1948. What is the theme for World Health Day in 2024?

Sol. In 2024, the theme for World Health Day is “My Health, My Right”, focusing on the fundamental human right to access quality healthcare, education, and information.

Q91. What is the percentage of India’s annual urea demand currently met by imports?

Sol. India currently fulfills around 30% of its annual urea demand through imports. This highlights the significant reliance on imported urea to meet the country’s agricultural needs, emphasizing the importance of efforts to boost domestic production.

Q92. Who has been appointed to chair the committee for protecting Delhi’s forests by the Delhi High Court?

Sol. The Delhi High Court appointed Justice Najmi Waziri to lead the committee for protecting Delhi’s forests. This decision was made to address concerns regarding the lack of cooperation from government departments in safeguarding the forests.

Q93. Who won the International Booker Prize in 2022?

Sol. Geetanjali Shree. She was awarded the International Booker Prize in 2022 for her novel “Tomb of Sand.” This recognition highlights the significant contribution of Indian literature on the global stage.

Q94. What is the maximum amount per transaction that customers can withdraw using J&K Bank’s Virtual ATM (VATM) facility?

Sol. Customers using J&K Bank’s VATM facility can withdraw up to Rs 2000 cash per transaction.

Q95. What is the estimated age of the Harappan settlement discovered at Padta Bet in Gujarat?

Sol. The excavation revealed evidence of occupation from circa 3200 BCE to 1700 BCE, indicating the age of the Harappan settlement.

Q96. Which bank leads in credit card issuance with 20.40 million cards in circulation?

Sol. HDFC Bank is the leader in credit card issuances in India, with 20.40 million cards in circulation.

Q97. What is the total value of the contract signed by the Indian Ministry of Defence with Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) for the Akashteer system?

Sol. The Ministry of Defence signed a contract worth ₹1,982 crore with Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) for the procurement of the Akashteer system. This contract is aimed at enhancing the Indian Army’s air defence capabilities through the implementation of the indigenous Akashteer system.

Q98. What is the primary objective of the Akashteer system in the Indian Army?

Sol. The Akashteer system in the Indian Army serves multiple purposes, including monitoring low-level airspace over battle areas, controlling ground-based air defence weapon systems, integrating radar and communication systems, and automating air defence operations. It aims to enhance the army’s air defence capabilities through a comprehensive approach.

Q99. Which company emerged as the first Indian entity to achieve the Aluminium Stewardship Initiative (ASI) Performance Standard V3 Certification?

Sol. BALCO, a unit of Vedanta Aluminium, has attained the ASI Performance Standard V3 Certification, making it the inaugural Indian company to achieve this milestone. This certification reflects BALCO’s commitment to sustainable practices in the aluminium value chain, positioning it as a leader in environmental and social responsibility within the industry.

Q100. What is the target capacity of Masdar’s renewable energy portfolio by 2030?

Sol. Masdar aims to achieve a renewable energy portfolio capacity of 100GW by 2030, as stated in the article. This ambitious target reflects Masdar’s commitment to significantly contribute to the global transition towards renewable energy sources.

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NIACL Assistant Mains Result 2024, Direct Link

NIACL Assistant Mains Result 2024

The New India Assurance Company Limited (NIACL) will soon release the NIACL Assistant Mains Result 2024, on the official website, www.newindia.co.in. Candidates who appeared in the Main examination conducted on 13 April 2024 will be able to access their main results from the link provided in the given post. The given article provides the complete details regarding NIACL Assistant Mains Result 2024.

NIACL Assistant Final Result 2024

NIACL Assistant Final Result 2024 is expected to be released after the election for Phase II of the recruitment process. The result shall be published in the PDF format comprising the list of shortlisted candidates. Aspirants who have qualified will have to appear for the Regional Language Test which shall also be notified. The NIACL Assistant Scorecard and cut-off will also be released along with the release of the final result on the New India Assurance Company Limited on the official portal.

NIACL Assistant Mains Result 2024: Overview

A summary of NIACL Assistant Mains Result 2024 has been tabulated below highlighting the crucial points that a candidate should know of. This year, 300 candidates will be recruited for the position of Assistant by New India Assurance Company Limited.

NIACL Assistant Mains Result 2024
Organization New India Assurance Company Limited (NIACL)
Exam Name NIACL Assistant 2024
Vacancies 300
Category Result
Status Not-Released
Selection Process Prelims, Mains & Regional Language Test
NIACL Assistant Mains Result 2024 Date To be Notified
NIACL Assistant Mains 2024 Exam Date 13 April 2024
Official Website www.newindia.co.in
Official WhatsApp Channel Join WhatsApp Channel
Official Telegram Channel Join Telegram Channel

NIACL Assistant Mains Result 2024 Download PDF

NIACL Assistant Mains Result 2024 Download PDF Link shall be activated soon by the NIACL on the official portal and then candidates can check their qualifying status and result. Qualified candidates are an inch closer to the final selection for NIACL Assistant 2024. Candidates can access their NIACL Assistant Mains Result 2024 from the link below.

NIACL Assistant Mains Result 2024: Click here to Download (Link Inactive)

Steps to Download the NIACL Assistant Result 2024

To download the NIACL Assistant Prelims Result 2024 from the official website, aspirants should follow the below-mentioned steps.

    1. Visit the official website of NIACL, www.newindia.co.in
    2. Scroll down the homepage and Navigate to the “Recruitment” section
    3. Go to NIACL Assistant Recruitment
    4. Click on NIACL Assistant Result 2024 for Mains
    5. NIACL Assistant Mains Result 2024 will be available in PDF format
    6. Download to Save your NIACL Assistant Manis Result 2024 for future reference

Details mentioned on NIACL Assistant Mains Result 2024

After downloading the NIACL Mains Result 2024 for the Assistants, candidates should double-check the following details.

  • Examination Name
  • Post Name
  • Roll Number
  • Mains Exam Date
  • Regional Language Test Date

NIACL Assistant Mains Cut Off 2024

NIACL will soon release the NIACL Assistant Mains Cut-Off 2024 along with the NIACL Assistant Score Card 2024. The cut-off mark depends on various factors such as the number of vacancies, difficulty level, etc. The NIACL publishes the cut-off marks for each state. Candidates can Check the NIACL Assistant Cut-Off 2024 state-wise for each category.

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SBI Clerk Syllabus 2023 With Exam Pattern For Prelims and Mains_80.1

IBPS PO 2024 Preparation Strategy With Tips and Tricks

IBPS PO 2024 Preparation Strategy

The IBPS PO exam holds great significance for individuals aspiring to become Probationary Officers in public sector banks. This role offers stability and opportunities for professional growth. As the IBPS PO 2024 examination notification is yet to be out for 2024-25 vacancies, candidates vying for this opportunity must have a clear understanding of effective preparation tips and strategies.

The approach a candidate takes towards the examination often becomes the deciding factor between success and failure. With lakhs of aspirants appearing for this competitive exam, step-by-step guidance becomes crucial. To help candidates maximize their potential in the IBPS PO Examination, this section provides detailed preparation tips and strategies for 2024. By following these recommendations, candidates can enhance their chances of excelling in this highly sought-after examination.

IBPS PO IBPS PO Preparation Tips & Tricks

Crafting a well-thought-out preparation plan is crucial for aspirants aiming to excel in both the Prelims and Mains sections of the IBPS PO 2024 Exam. It’s essential to devise a practical study schedule that covers all subjects effectively. Given the competitive nature of the IBPS PO exam, a strategic and systematic approach is imperative to improve speed and accuracy in answering questions. The release of the IBPS Calendar 2024 provides detailed information about recruitment schedules for PO, Clerk, and Specialist Officers. The tentative exam dates for IBPS PO 2024 are scheduled for 19th-20th October 2024. Important measures such as understanding the exam pattern, creating a realistic study plan, focusing on conceptual clarity, regular practice, and effective time management can significantly enhance the likelihood of success.

Understanding IBPS PO 2024 Syllabus & Exam Pattern

Embarking on the preparation journey for the IBPS PO Exam necessitates a solid grasp of the syllabus. Familiarizing oneself with the IBPS PO syllabus acts as a guiding compass, enabling aspirants to kickstart their studies, analyze the subjects to be covered, and identify areas that require heightened focus. Candidates must successfully navigate through three stages of the IBPS PO recruitment process to secure the coveted Probationary Officer position: the Preliminary, Main, and Interview rounds. The syllabus aligns with other banking examinations, encompassing topics such as English Language, Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, and General Awareness. With a comprehensive understanding of the syllabus, aspirants can strategically plan their preparation, ensuring a well-rounded approach to tackling the diverse subjects in the examination.

Make Your Personalized Study Plan

Crafting a personalized study plan tailored to one’s individual preferences and learning style is essential for success in the IBPS PO exam. While it’s true that each candidate has their own unique approach to preparation, it’s important not to simply replicate someone else’s plan. Instead, aspirants should identify the strategies and techniques that resonate with them the most and incorporate them into their own study routine. Consistency is key when executing the study plan, as sudden changes can disrupt momentum and lead to decreased effectiveness in preparation. By adhering to their chosen plan and maintaining a steady pace, aspirants can optimize their study efforts and increase their chances of achieving success in the IBPS PO exam. Regular self-assessment and adjustments can also be made along the way to ensure that the study plan remains aligned with evolving needs and goals.

Study Material

Acquiring up-to-date and appropriate study materials is pivotal for successful preparation. Enhance conceptual understanding by utilizing online resources, video lectures, and practice papers. While numerous study materials are accessible, aspirants should prioritize reputable banking and competitive exam books for quantitative aptitude, reasoning, English Language, and general awareness. Moreover, Adda247 offers valuable guidance on the exam’s structure and complexity, aiding candidates in their preparation.

Work on Conceptual Clarity

Instead of relying solely on memorization, aspirants should prioritize developing a robust conceptual understanding of the topics covered in the syllabus. This approach will not only equip them with the ability to solve a wide range of questions but also enhance their overall problem-solving capabilities. When candidates possess a firm grasp of the underlying principles, they can navigate even the most complex and tricky questions with relative ease. By focusing on conceptual mastery rather than rote learning, aspirants can build a solid foundation that will serve them well throughout the examination process and beyond.

Regular Practice and Mock Test

Consistent practice is essential for excelling in any banking competitive examination. Allocate dedicated time each day for practice sessions, focusing on solving a diverse range of questions from every section. Mock tests are invaluable during the preparation process as they simulate the actual exam environment, aiding aspirants in mastering time management skills. Reviewing performance in mock tests is crucial for identifying both strengths and weaknesses. Aspirants can then concentrate on enhancing weaker areas while reinforcing their strengths to optimize their overall performance.

Time Management

Effective time management is paramount, particularly during the preliminary exam phase. In both the preliminary and main examinations, candidates are allotted specific timeframes to complete each section. Practicing solving questions within these stipulated time limits during preparation aids aspirants in developing a keen understanding of how to allocate time efficiently for each question and section.

Stay Calm & Stress Free

Maintaining a calm and stress-free mindset is crucial for enhancing concentration and mental acuity among IBPS PO aspirants. Stress adversely impacts mental stamina, ultimately affecting performance on exam day. Allocating time for meditation and yoga can promote peace of mind and alleviate stress during the exam period.

Proper Revision is a Way to Success

Consistent revision is vital to solidify the knowledge acquired by candidates. It’s important to allocate separate revision sessions for each section. Crafting concise notes for swift reference in the days leading up to the exam is beneficial. Revision aids aspirants in consolidating their grasp of concepts and bolstering their self-assurance.

Clearing IBPS PO 2024 Without Coaching

For many individuals, realizing the esteemed ambition of becoming an IBPS Probationary Officer remains a distant dream, attained only by a select few. How can one turn such aspirations into tangible achievements? The journey commences with early and unwavering preparation for bank examinations. The pivotal moment arises when a candidate sets their sights firmly on this career path, signifying a steadfast commitment. Despite potential pressures from peers or parents and doubts regarding success sans coaching, such apprehensions lack substance. Achievement in any examination hinges upon dedication and effective practice. Accessible learning resources, ranging from complimentary online materials and YouTube tutorials to paid online courses, can be harnessed with the aid of technology. Platforms such as Adda247 and BankersAdda on YouTube furnish updated study materials, facilitating comprehensive preparation.

Topic Wise Weightage of IBPS PO Prelims Exam

In the table below we have provided information about the topics that were asked in IBPS PO preliminary exam. This table will help you in understanding the topics that are important from preliminary exam point of view so that you can target those topics to get significant outcome.

Topic Wise Weightage of IBPS PO Prelims Exam
Reasoning Ability Quantitative Aptitude English Language
Flat-Floor Puzzle (5 Q) Missing Series (5 Q) Correct Sentence (3 Q)
Year Based Puzzle (5 Q) Quadratic Equation (5 Q) Error Spotting (3)
Circular Seating Arrangement (5 Q) Caselet DI (5 Q) Reading Comprehension (9 Q)
Liner Seating Arrangement (5 Q) Pie Chart DI (5 Q) Word Swap (3)
Order-Ranking (3 Q) Tabular DI (5 Q) Correct Usage (3 Q)
Blood Relation (3 Q) Boat & Stream (1 Q) Cloze Test (5)
Syllogism + Inequality (4 + 3 Q) CI & SI (1 Q) Sentence Improvement (3)
Miscellaneous (2 Q) Arithmetic (8 Q) Synonym or Antonym (1 Q)
35 35 30

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