English Language Quiz For Bank Mains Exams 2021- 29th January

Directions (1-5): In each of the following sentence there are three blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five options and each option consists of three words which can be filled up in the provided blanks in the sentence respectively to make the sentence grammatically correct. Choose the most appropriate set of words that makes the sentence contextually and grammatically correct.

Q1. Gross Enrolment Ratio or GER in higher education has _________________ an increase from 24.5 per cent in 2015-16 to 25.2 per cent in 2016-17, according to the latest ________________ of the All India Survey of Higher Education (AISHE) _________________ by Union human resource development (HRD) minister Prakash Javadekar.

(a)enrolled, number, begin
(b)registered, edition, launched
(c)drafted, copy, propel
(d)recorded, portfolio, induce
(e)reported, fiction, beset

Q2. Rule 49 of the Bar Council of India _______________ that any full-time salaried employee, _______________ he or she belongs to a corporation, private firm, or the government, cannot ________________ as a lawyer before a court of law.

(a)states, whether, practice
(b)set, once, move
(c)declares, if, heed
(d)assert, when, pertinent
(e)testify, in case, respect

Q3. Technological advances in sequencing methods have made the possibility _______________ 60 years ago a _______________ today. Already by 2001 the human genome project and its private competitor, Celera Genomics, showed that an _______________ genome could be sequenced.

(a)gazing, solidity, all
(b)looked, truth, unmark
(c)detect, fact, unfinished
(d)glimpsed, reality, entire
(e)examined, actuality, abridged

Q4. _______________ the Ministry is intent on improving the world ranking of its institutions, there is a _________________ improvement in the number of foreign students studying in the country ________________ 45,424 in 2015-16 to 47,575 in 2016-17.

(a)although, marginal, from
(b)albeit, significant, to
(c)despite, small, as
(d)meanwhile, faint, of
(e)notwithstanding, oblique, like

Q5. India will ________________ the first-ever conference of serving Members of Parliaments and mayors of Indian origin from ________________ the globe on 9 January to further strengthen its _________________ connect.

(a)guests, around, migrating
(b)visit, over, exodus
(c)host, across, diaspora
(d)legion, beyond, expulsion
(e)party, cross, passage

Directions (6-10): Five statements are given below, labeled (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). Among these, four statements are in logical order and form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the paragraph.

Q6. (a) A dull, undeveloped intellect leads to confusion, loss and sorrow.
(b) The intellect is most important; it needs to be developed and strengthened with independent, original thinking.
(c) An intellect focussed on world welfare gives happiness.
(d) The intellect discriminates between pairs of opposites.
(e) A sharp, clear intellect guarantees prosperity and success.

Q7. (a) When you gather a huge volume of impressions, these slowly shape themselves into tendencies.
(b) ‘Vasana’ literally means ‘smell’.
(c) Whatever you do with your body, mind, or energy, leaves a certain residue.
(d) It is possible for us to choose not to be victims of our vasanas or puppets of our pasts.
(e) These tendencies have been traditionally described as vasanas.

Q8. (a) The 2016 order noted that air quality was measured in terms of the Air Quality Index (AQI), launched in India on October 17, 2014, by the Union Ministry of Environment and Forests.
(b) Reports indicated that the AQI in Delhi was much worse than “Severe”, going above the AQI 500 mark on many days in November 2016.
(c) The AQI considers eight substances as pollutants and based on the levels of these pollutants, six categories of AQI, ranging from “Good” to “Severe”, have been prescribed.
(d) The widths of the larger particles in the PM 2.5 size range would be about 30 times smaller than that of a human hair.
(e) It consists of a comprehensive set of parameters to monitor and assess air quality.

Q9. (a) The actual size and value of government-owned land resources is thus a matter of speculation.
(b) Land is a crucial and often constraining input for production, not only in agriculture but also in secondary and tertiary sectors.
(c) Imagine what would happen if a citizen or a private entity made such a claim before the taxman — they would be fined and very likely end up in jail.
(d) The information provided by the Government Land Information System (GLIS) is both incomplete and patchy.
(e) The Centre, by its own admission, does not know exactly how much property it owns.

Q10. (a) That softer growth estimates have come at a time when the government’s fiscal deficit has already crossed the budget estimate for the full year, and GST collections are underwhelming, is a particular cause for concern.
(b) Second, the key investment metric of gross fixed capital formation, though estimated to show faster growth, is expected to shrink in terms of proportion to GDP: to 29%, from 29.5% in the provisional estimates for 2016-17 and 30.9% in 2015-16.
(c) For one, gross value added, or GVA — which excludes taxes that feature in the GDP number — is projected to grow by 6.1%, slowing from a provisional 6.6% in 2016-17, as manufacturing and the agriculture, forestry and fishing components of GVA decelerate.
(d) The headwinds that had been flagged by Mr. Subramanian at that time are proving to be the crucial factors dampening momentum.
(e) Five months after Chief Economic Adviser Arvind Subramanian predicted that economic growth was likely to be closer to 6.5% in the current fiscal year, the Central Statistics Office has forecast that the gross domestic product (GDP) would expand at precisely that pace in the 12 months ending in March.

Directions (11-15): In the question given below, there are four sentences. Choose the sentence which is grammatically incorrect as your answer. If all the given sentences are grammatically correct and do not require any correction, choose (e) i.e. “All are correct” as your answer.

Q11. (a) A new set of £2 coins this year will mark the 200th anniversary of the Dr Frankenstein novels by Mary Shelley.
(b) I tried to figure out where I was, and realised with a sinking heart my accommodation was miles away.
(c) Though the book is not yet available in India, previews published in this country suggest that it is a complex study of an extremely complex personality.
(d) If you resist the first temptation the next will be easier to overcome.
(e) All are correct

Q12. (a) For a few minutes, I stood in the living room alone, but it was a welcome chance for me to gather my thoughts.
(b) It is one of many downtown streets and to most people nothing special.
(c) The first ‘real’ people I would meet in the UK would be my two new flatmates.
(d) The actor, who was playing a detective in the film, alleged to have pushed the director when he asked him to get into his costume as it was getting late.
(e) All are correct

Q13. (a) The government needs to provide specific regulations that create an environment where a trained scientific personnel enjoyed space and freedom to design new products benefitting society.
(b) My friend was bruised quite badly in a recent accident.
(c) Conventionally speaking, men are supposed to earn while women are supposed to sit at home, do housework and discipline the children.
(d) Banking industry specialists have pointed out that lending is a commercial activity, which is based on an evaluation of the business decisions of borrowers and their assessment of commercial viability.
(e) All are correct

Q14. (a) The movement, which aims to raise awareness about climate change, hopes to bring people together to think about what they can do for reducing harmful pollution.
(b) Satish was advised an operation more than thirty years back, but due to his financial condition he could not undergoes the procedure.
(c) As I told you earlier, I have never been good with introductions, not even in my native language, and this experience wasn’t going to change that record.
(d) It cost me more than a meal for two back home, but at least I managed to get rid of the taste of Penelope’s tea.
(e) All are correct

Q15. (a) Without feedback people begin assuming the worst and the anxiety that results leads to reactive behavior, which is actually a protective response.
(b) If an individual works only in team efforts, he will seldom receive individual recognition.
(c) Professional suicide, a widespread but rarely studied phenomenon is costing companies not only dollars and cents, but the talents and skills of many bright, creative and committed key employees.
(d) Workers batting to restore power supply to damaged reactors have successful in reaching upto the second reactor.
(e) All are correct

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S1. Ans. (b)
Sol. “registered, edition, launched” is the correct set of words that fits perfectly into the provided blanks. Other sets of words do not provide the best meaning to the sentence.
Register means enter or record on an official list or directory.
Edition means a particular form or version of a published text.
Propel means drive or push something forwards.
Beset means (of a problem or difficulty) trouble (someone or something) persistently.

S2. Ans. (a)
Sol. “states, whether, practice” is the correct set of words that fits perfectly into the provided blanks. Other sets of words do not provide the exact meaning to the sentence. Hence (a) is the correct choice.
Whether means expressing a doubt or choice between alternatives.
Heed means pay attention to; take notice of.
Pertinent means relevant or applicable to a particular matter; apposite.
Testify means serve as evidence or proof that something exists or is the case.

S3. Ans. (d)
Sol. “glimpsed, reality, entire” is the correct set of words that fits perfectly into the provided blanks. Other set of words cannot be used owing to their irrelevant meanings to the sentence. Hence (d) is the correct choice.
Glimpse means see or perceive briefly or partially.
Solidity means the quality or state of being firm or strong in structure.
Actuality means the state of existing in reality.
Abridged means shorten (a book, film, speech, etc.) without losing the sense.

S4. Ans. (a)
Sol. “although, marginal, from” is the most appropriate set of words that fits perfectly into the provided blanks to make the sentence contextually meaningful. Other words cannot be considered as they alter the true meaning of the sentence. Hence option (a) is the correct choice.
Marginal means minor and not important; not central.
Albeit means though.
Oblique means not expressed or done in a direct way.
Faint means (of a sight, smell, or sound) barely perceptible.

S5. Ans. (c)
Sol. “host, across, diaspora” is the most appropriate set of words that fits perfectly into the provided blanks to make the sentence logically meaningful. Other words cannot be filled as they alter the meaning of the original sentence.  Hence option (c) is the correct choice.
Diaspora means people who have spread or been dispersed from their homeland.
Exodus means a mass departure of people.
Legion means a vast number of people or things.
Expulsion means the action of forcing someone to leave an organization.

S6. Ans. (b)
Sol. Sentences in the sequence of daec form a coherent paragraph while sentence (b) is not a part of it. The sentences forming the paragraph is about different types of intellect and its impact on ourselves. Sentence (b) talks about developing the intellect and hence making it different from other sentences. Hence option (b) is the correct choice.

S7. Ans. (d)
Sol. Here if we read the sentences, we find that these are interconnected with one another as here the sentences talk about impressions that form tendencies described as vasanas, which means ‘smell’. Hence sentences in the sequence of caeb form a coherent paragraph while sentence (d), talking about victims of vasanas, is not a part of the paragraph. Hence option (d) is the correct choice.

S8. Ans. (d)
Sol. Sentence (d) is not a part of the coherent paragraph, as the sentences (sequencing aecb) forming coherent paragraph talks about measuring the air quality in Delhi, whereas sentence (d) is about the particulate matter (PM), which fails to connect with other sentences. Hence sentence (d) is the correct choice.

S9. Ans. (b)
Sol. Sentences in the sequence of ecad form a coherent paragraph while sentence (b) does not form a part of it as the paragraph discusses the issue regarding incomplete information of property of Government while the sentence (b) is about the importance of land, which is not making any connection with other sentences. Hence option (b) is the correct choice.

S10. Ans. (a)
Sol. Here sentences in the sequence of edcb are forming a coherent paragraph talking about prediction regarding GDP and GVA while sentence (a) is about the concern regarding fiscal deficit crossing the budget, making it unrelated to other sentences. Hence option (a) is the correct choice of elimination.

S11. Ans. (e)
Sol. All the given sentences are grammatically correct.

S12. Ans. (d)
Sol. ‘was alleged’ will be used in place of ‘alleged’ as here. ‘The actor’ is a passive subject and the sentence is in the past tense, hence ‘be’ verb will be used for ‘actor’ in the form of ‘was’.

S13. Ans. (a)
Sol. ‘enjoys’ is the correct use instead of ‘enjoyed’ as the sentence is in present tense {‘needs’, ‘create’].

S14. Ans. (b)
Sol. ‘undergo’ will be used in the place of ‘undergoes’ as ‘could’ is a modal and V1 is used with modal used in the sentence.

S15. Ans. (d)
Sol. ‘are’ is the correct use in place of ‘have’ as ‘successful’ is an adjective and verb ‘be’ is used for any adjective.

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