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SBI Clerk Reasoning Questions With Solution

SBI Clerk Reasoning Questions

The reasoning segment stands as a pivotal component of the SBI Clerk Exam, essential both in the preliminary and mains stages. Proficiency in this section is key to securing a position as an SBI Clerk in State Bank of India. It evaluates candidates’ analytical prowess and ability to solve problems within a given timeframe. In this column, we delve into the reasoning questions of the SBI Clerk Bank Exam, offering a detailed overview of SBI Clerk reasoning to facilitate effective preparation.

Reasoning Question in SBI Clerk Exam

Prior to delving into the Reasoning questions, it’s essential to familiarize ourselves with the various question formats categorized by topics for the SBI Clerk Bank Exam. The Reasoning section of the SBI Clerk examination encompasses an array of question types meticulously crafted to evaluate candidates’ logical and analytical aptitude. Several typical question formats include:

Question Format
Topic Question Type
Seating Arrangement Arranging individuals or objects in an order based on the given conditions, such as circular arrangement, linear arrangement, or rectangular arrangement.
Puzzles Arranging elements or variables based on the given conditions to arrive at a logical solution.
Syllogism Drawing logical conclusions from the statements provided using the set of rules.
Blood Relation Determining the relationship between different individuals based on the information given.
Coding-Decoding Deciphering the coded messages or patterns from the underlying logic.
Input-Output Understand the logic behind a series of inputs and outputs to answer questions based on the pattern.
Direction Sense Interpreting the directions and navigating through a given scenario or finding out the distance.
Logical Reasoning Evaluate arguments, draw conclusions, and identify patterns in the given set of information.

Weightage of SBI Clerk Reasoning Questions

The weightage of reasoning questions in the SBI Clerk examination is substantial, as it holds a significant portion of the overall marks. Mastering this section is crucial for candidates aiming to excel in the exam. Reasoning questions encompass a variety of formats, including puzzles, seating arrangement, coding-decoding, syllogism, and logical reasoning. Each question type demands different problem-solving strategies, testing the candidate’s analytical skills and logical thinking ability. Due to its importance, candidates often dedicate a substantial amount of time to practicing reasoning questions to enhance their proficiency and maximize their chances of success in the SBI Clerk examination.

Weightage of Reasoning in SBI Clerk Exam
Exam No. of Questions Total Marks
Prelims  35 35
Mains 50 60

Benefits of Solving Reasoning Questions for SBI Clerk Exam

Solving reasoning questions for the SBI Clerk Exam offers numerous benefits:

Improved Time Management: Regular practice of reasoning questions hones time management skills, vital for completing the exam within the allotted time frame. Efficiently solving these questions boosts confidence and reduces exam-related stress.

Better Accuracy: Consistent practice leads to improved accuracy in answering reasoning questions. Candidates learn to decipher complex patterns, leading to fewer errors and higher scores in the exam.

Comprehensive Preparation: Reasoning questions cover a wide range of topics, including puzzles, seating arrangements, and logical reasoning. Mastering these diverse question types ensures thorough preparation for the exam and boosts overall performance.

Competitive Edge: Excelling in the reasoning section provides a competitive advantage, as it contributes significantly to the overall score. Candidates proficient in reasoning are better positioned to secure a higher score and increase their chances of selection in the SBI Clerk Exam.

Tips and Tricks to Solve SBI Clerk Reasoning Questions

For many candidates, the Reasoning Ability section presents an opportunity to score high, provided they possess a strong grasp of the fundamental concepts underlying the questions in this section. Mastering SBI Clerk reasoning questions requires strategic approaches. Here are some tips and tricks to tackle them effectively:

Understand Question Types: Familiarize yourself with the various types of reasoning questions, such as puzzles, syllogism, coding-decoding, and seating arrangement. Recognizing question patterns helps in devising appropriate solving strategies.

Practice Regularly: Consistent practice is key to improving reasoning skills. Solve a variety of reasoning questions from previous SBI Clerk papers and practice sets to enhance your problem-solving abilities and speed.

Develop Logical Thinking: Reasoning questions often require logical deduction and analysis. Strengthen your logical thinking by regularly solving puzzles, riddles, and brain teasers. Break down complex problems into smaller, manageable parts to solve them more efficiently.

Attempt Daily Online Quizes: Regularly attempting Reasoning Ability questions through mock tests and quizzes available on platforms like the Adda247 app can significantly aid candidates in reinforcing concepts and honing their problem-solving skills.

Time Management: Allocate time wisely to each question while practicing. Set time limits for different question types to improve your speed and accuracy. Skip difficult questions initially and return to them later if time permits.

Use Elimination Techniques: When faced with multiple-choice questions, eliminate obviously incorrect options to narrow down your choices. This increases the probability of selecting the correct answer, especially when unsure about the solution.

By incorporating these tips and tricks into your preparation strategy, you can tackle SBI Clerk reasoning questions with confidence and maximize your chances of success in the exam.

SBI Clerk Reasoning Questions with Solutions

Direction (1-5): Study the following information and answer carefully.

A certain number of persons are standing in a row facing north. Q stands at one of the ends of the row. As many persons are standing between R and T as between S and R. Eight persons are standing between S and P. Only one person stands between Q and S. P is 3rd from one of the ends. L is 5th to the left of R. More than 6 persons are standing between Q and T. Not more than 5 persons are standing between P and L.

Q1. How many persons are standing to the right of L?
(a) 12
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 11
(e) None of these

Q2. If X is 4th right to T, then how many persons are standing between P and X?
(a)3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 5
(e) None of these

Q3. How many total numbers of persons are standing in the row?
(a) 15
(b) 14
(c) 13
(d) 12
(e) None of these

Q4. How many persons are standing between P and R?
(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) Seven
(e) Six

Q5. If ‘O’ is third to the left of L, then what is the position of O with respect to P?
(a) Second to the right
(b) Immediate right
(c) Second to the left
(d) Third to the left
(e) Immediate left

Directions (6-10): In the following questions the symbol *, $, #, % and @ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B.’
‘A * B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B.’
‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B.’
‘A % B’ means ‘A is not greater than B.’
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B.’

Now in each of the following questions assuming the statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give answer accordingly.

Q 6. Statements: S#J, J$D, D@K, K%Q
Conclusions: I. Q#D
II. Q@D
III. S#K
(a) Only I and II are true
(b) Only I is true
(c) Only II is true
(d) Only III is true
(e) None of the above

Q 7. Statements: T%P, P$M, M@D, D*Q
Conclusions: I. D%P
II. Q#P
III. T*M
(a) None is true
(b) Only I is true
(c) Only II is true
(d) Only III is true
(e) Only I and III are true

Q 8. Statements: M@C, C#N, C$R, R*K
Conclusions: I. K#C
II. R*N
III. M$R
(a) None is true
(b) Only I is true
(c) Only I and III are true
(d) Only III is true
(e) Only I and II are true

Q 9. Statements: T#H, H@M, M*O, O$J
Conclusion: I. J*M
II. O#H
III. M*T
(a) None is true
(b) Only I is true
(c) Only II is true
(d) Only II and III are true
(e) Only I and II are true

Q 10. Statements: P@S, S%Q, Q*T, T$R
Conclusion: I. S*T
II. P%T
III. S%R
(a) None is true
(b) Only I is true
(c) Only II is true
(d) Only III is true
(e) Only I and II are true.

Directions (11-15): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:

N 4 7 T U J K 3 % F @ © L N 5 P 1 8 U $ E 2 D C 6 # 9 Z Q 8 Y * M A

Q11. Which of the following is sixth to the left of the fifteenth from the left end of the given arrangement?
(a) 2
(b) #
(c) %
(d) $
(e) None of these

Q12. How many such numbers are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant but not immediately followed by a letter?
(a) One
(b) None
(c) three
(d) Two
(e) Four

Q13. How many such symbols are there in the arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a letter but not immediately preceded by a number?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) None
(d) Two
(e) More than three

Q14. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?
TU3 @©5 8U2 ?
(a) 69Q
(b) #Z8
(c) 6#Q
(d) #9Z
(e) None of these

Q15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the given arrangement and so from a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) DC6
(b) @©L
(c) 9ZQ
(d) 5P1
(e) #MA

Directions (16-20): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

Ten persons of a family i.e., P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y sit around a rectangular table in such a way that three of them sit at each of the longer side of the table and faces towards the centre and two of them sit at each of the shorter side of the table and faces away from the centre. All the information is not necessarily in the same order.

P who is father of R sits third to the right of Q’s daughter-in-law. W sits at the immediate left of Q’s father-in-law who is married with V. P is the only child of V who sits opposite to the one who sits at the immediate left of R’s wife. X is son of U who is a female member. S is paternal aunt of X and sits second to the right of Q’s only sibling. W sits only with Y who is child of U. Y is not nephew of S. R has more than one child. W is not married and sits opposite to R. R’s spouse sits on the same side with R. P’s wife sits at the immediate left of Y sibling.

Q16. How T is related to the one who sits second to the left of Q?

(a) Sister

(b) Brother

(c) Father

(d) Grand father

(e) Grand mother

Q17. Four of the following are alike in a certain way so form a group, who among the following does not belong to that group?

(a) R

(b) X

(c) U

(d) P

(e) T

Q18. How many persons sit between S and V when counted from the right of V?

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Five

(d) Three

(e) Four

Q19. Which of the following statement is not true?

(a) S, X and Q sits together on the same side of the table

(b) Q sits opposite to P

(c) Q sits at the immediate left of X

(d) T is father-in-law of Q

(e) S sits opposite to T

Q20. How many female members are there in the family?

(a) Can’t be determined

(b) Six

(c) Seven

(d) Five

(e) Four

Directions (21-23): Answer the questions based on the information given below.

Seven persons are sitting at some distance from each other. W is sitting 4m west to X. T is sitting 2m north to S, who is sitting 4m west to Q, who is sitting 1m north to V. W is sitting 2m north to Y. Y is sitting 8m west of T.

Q21. What is the direction of X with respect to Q?

(a) North-east

(b) South-east

(c) North

(d) North-west

(e) None of these

Q22. What is the shortest distance between W and V?

(a) 13m

(b) 15m

(c) 11m

(d) 9m

(e) 8m

Q23. What is the direction of S with respect to W?

(a) North-east

(b) South-east

(c) South-west

(d) North-west

(e) None of these

Directions (24-25): Answer the questions based on the information given below. In a certain code,

A & B means A is 9m west of B.

A % B means A is 4m south of B.

A * B means A is 7m north of B.

A @ B means A is 5m east of B.

Q24. In expression ‘M&N%A%C&O*P*Q’, then Q is in which direction with respect to C?

(a) North-east

(b) South-east

(c) South-west

(d) North-west

(e) None of these

Q25. In expression ‘P&R&T@S%Q*L*M’, what is shortest distance between P and L?

(a) √178m

(b) √176m

(c) √185m

(d) √204m

(e) None of these

Q26. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from 2nd, 3rd, 5th and 6th letters of word “COMPREHENSIVE”, then which will be the 3rd letter of that meaningful word? If no such meaningful word is formed, then mark the answer as ‘Y’. If more than one meaningful word is formed, then mark the answer as ‘X’.

(a) Y

(b) O

(c) E

(d) R

(e) X

Q27. Which of the following letter will become the exact middle letter, if all the letters of the word “COPYRIGHT” are arranged in reverse alphabetical order from left to right?

(a) P

(b) H

(c) O

(d) R

(e) None of the above

Q28. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from 1st, 3rd, 4th and 6th letters of word “ANTIFLAME”, then which will be the 3rd letter of that meaningful word? If no such meaningful word is formed, then mark the answer as ‘Y’. If more than one meaningful word is formed, then mark the answer as ‘X’.

(a) Y

(b) T

(c) A

(d) I

(e) X

Q29. How many pairs of letters are there in the word “ORGANICS” which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the alphabetical series (both in forward and backward direction)?

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Four

(e) None of the above

Q30. How many pairs of letters are there in the word “PREMIUM” which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the alphabetical series (both in forward and backward direction)?

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Four

(e) None of the above

Direction (31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight boxes i.e., M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are placed one above the other. These boxes contain different dryfruits i.e., Almonds, Cashews, Raisins, Dates, Figs, Walnuts, Saffron and Apricots but not necessarily in the same order.

The box which contains Cashews is placed just above S which is not placed at bottommost position. Three boxes are placed between S and O. There are two boxes which are placed between O and T. Not more than one box is placed between T and M. Maximum one box is placed between O and M. Q is placed third above M and contains Dates. Three boxes are placed between Q and P. One box is placed between P and S which contains Apricots. More than two boxes are placed between M and R. There are three boxes placed between the box which contains Apricots and the box which contains Saffron. One box is placed between the box which contains Saffron and the box which contains Figs. N does not contain Almonds and Walnuts. M does not contain Walnuts.

Q31. Which of the following box is placed at top?

(a) T

(b) Q

(c) P

(d) N

(e) O

Q32. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) O contains Cashews

(b) Two boxes are placed between N and S

(c) R contains Walnuts

(d) S is placed just above T

(e) None is true

Q33. Which of the following box is placed second above the box which contains Almonds?

(a) Q

(b) N

(c) M

(d) P

(e) S

Q34. How many boxes are placed between the box which contains Walnuts and N?

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Four

(d) Five

(e) Six

Q35. What is the position of O with respect to N?

(a) Just below

(b) Second below

(c) Second above

(d) Third above

(e) None of the above

Directions (36-40): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

In a certain code language:
‘Loss Profit Strong’ is written as ‘os if gn’,
‘Profit Chart Strong’ is written as ‘rt gn if’,
‘Boat Profit Cost’ is written as ‘if ot so’
‘Strong Chart Profit’ is written as ‘gn rt if’.

Q36. What is the code for ‘Chart’ in the given code language?

(a) gn
(b) if
(c) ot
(d) rt
(e) None of these

Q37. If ‘Boat’ is coded as ‘so’. What is the code for ‘article cost’ in the given code language?

(a) le if
(b) ot le
(c) so gn
(d) if rt
(e) None of these

Q38. What is the code for ‘Profit’ in the given code language?

(a) if
(b) gn
(c) ot
(d) rt
(e) Can’t be determined

Q39. What may be the code for ‘Strong’ in the given code language?

(a) if
(b) rt
(c) gn
(d) so
(e) None of these

Q40. What may be the code for ‘Loss Chart cost’?

(a) so gn ot
(b) if gn ot
(c) os gn ot
(d) so gn if
(e) None of these

Directions (41-45): In the question below, there are some conclusions followed by four set of some statements in the options. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given statements are true disregarding the commonly known facts.

Q41. Conclusions: Few Bags are not Levi’s. Some Brands are Belts.
(a) Only a few Bags are Belts. Only Belts are Levi’s. All Bags are Brands.
(b) Only Levi’s are Belts. Some Levi’s are Brands. All Bags are Brands
(c) Only a few Brands are Levi’s. All Bags are Belts. Some Belts are Levi’s
(d) All Bags are Belts. All Belts are Brands. All Brands are Levi’s
(e) None of the above

Q42. Conclusions: Some Non-metals are Organic. All Metals can be Non-metals
(a) Some Metals are Organic, All non-metals are Metalloids. No Organic are Metalloids
(b) Some Metalloids are Organic. No Metalloids are Metals. All non-metals are Metals.
(c) All Metals are Organic. Some Non-metals are Metalloids. All Metalloids are Organic.
(d) Only a few Non-metals are Metalloids. All Organic are Metals, Few Organic are Metalloids.
(e) Both option (b) and option (d) are correct.

Q43. Conclusions: No rich is poor. A few rule can be rent. Some river being rich is a possibility.
(a) All rich is rent. Some rent is poor. No poor is river. Only river is rule.
(b) Some rich is rent. Mostly rent is poor. All poor is river. No river is rule.
(c) All rich is rent. No rent is poor. No poor is river. All rivers is rule.
(d) No rich is rent. Some rent is poor. Only a few poor is river. Some river is rule.
(e) None of these

Q44. Conclusions: All Asus can never be Dell. All Dell can be HP. Some Lenovo are Asus.
(a) All Lenovo are ThinkPad. Some Dell are Lenovo All Lenovo are HP. No HP is Asus.
(b) All ThinkPad are HP. Few HP are Dell. All Asus are Lenovo. Some Lenovo are Dell.
(c) Only a few HP are Dell. All Dell are Lenovo. Some ThinkPad are Asus. All HP are Asus.
(d) Only Asus are Dell. Only a few Asus are HP. Some Lenovo are HP. No ThinkPad are HP.
(e) Both option (b) and option (d) are correct.

Q45. Conclusions: Some Guitar can never be Flute. Some Drum can be Violin. Every Violin can be Piano.
(a) Only Violin is Piano. Only a few Violin is Flute. Few Flute is Guitar. No Guitars Drum.
(b) Few Piano is Drum. Only a few Drum is Violin. Only a few Guitar is Flute. No Violin is Guitar.
(c) Only a few Flute is Violin. Only Flute is Drum. 50% Flute is Guitar. No Guitar is Piano.
(d) Few Drum is Flute. No Flute is Guitar. 100% Guitar is Violin. Only a few Piano in Violin.
(e) None of these

Answers:

 Answers
1. c 6. e 11. c 16. d 21. d 26. d 31. b 36. d 41. a
2. c 7. b 12. e 17. c 22. a 27. c 32. c 37. b 42. c
3. b 8. d 13. b 18. e 23. b 28. d 33. b 38. e 43. c
4. c 9. d 14. c 19. b 24. b 29. a 34. d 39. c 44. c
5. c 10.b 15. e 20. a 25. a 30. c 35. a 40. e 45. d

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FAQs

Is it possible to score 35/35 in reasoning section?

Yes, with proper practice and speed it is possible to score 35 marks in Reasoning section of prelims exam and in fact many students score 35 marks in reasoning section in prelims exam.