Daily Current Affairs: 28 June, 2026

Q1. Recently, the first commercial export of the Geographical Indication (GI)-tagged Sundarja Mangoes was successfully facilitated to the United Arab Emirates (UAE). This premium mango variety is natively grown in which of the following Indian states?

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Bihar

(e) Gujarat

Answer: b

Solution:

• In June 2026, the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, facilitated the first commercial export of Geographical Indication (GI)-tagged Rewa Sundarja Mangoes from Madhya Pradesh to the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
• The export marks a significant milestone in promoting India’s unique agricultural products and expanding the global presence of GI-tagged produce.

Q2. The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) recently achieved a global milestone by inaugurating the world’s first nuclear heat-integrated hydrogen facility utilizing the indigenous Copper–Chlorine (Cu–Cl) thermochemical cycle. Which research entity indigenously developed this core thermochemical technology?

(a) Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR)

(b) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC)

(c) Raja Ramanna Centre for Advanced Technology (RRCAT)

(d) Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL)

(e) Variable Energy Cyclotron Centre (VECC)

Answer: b

Solution:

• In a landmark achievement for India’s clean energy and advanced nuclear technology programme, the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) inaugurated the world’s first Hydrogen Production Facility based on the Copper–Chlorine (Cu–Cl) Thermochemical Cycle at Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR), Kalpakkam.
• The facility utilizes nuclear process heat generated from the Fast Breeder Test Reactor (FBTR) for hydrogen production, marking a major technological breakthrough in the field of clean energy.
• The facility was inaugurated by Dr. Ajit Kumar Mohanty, Secretary, Department of Atomic Energy and Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC), in the presence of Shri Sreekumar G. Pillai, Director, IGCAR.
• The project has been established as a technology demonstrator to validate the production of hydrogen using nuclear energy through the Copper–Chlorine thermochemical process, which has been developed indigenously by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), Mumbai.
• The successful integration of nuclear process heat with hydrogen generation represents a pioneering achievement and demonstrates the potential of advanced nuclear technologies for producing clean hydrogen.

Q3. Recently, in June, 2026, India mobilized its military and logistics machinery to launch a major emergency relief mission to aid Venezuela following catastrophic twin earthquakes. What is the official code name designated for this Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operation?

(a) Operation Maitri

(b) Operation Karuna

(c) Operation Amistad

(d) Operation Dost

(e) Operation Insaniyat

Answer: c

Solution:

• In a gesture of solidarity with the people of the Bolivarian Republic of Venezuela, India launched Operation Amistad, a Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) mission to support the country following a devastating earthquake.
• The operation was initiated in response to the massive destruction caused by a series of powerful earthquakes that resulted in extensive loss of life, injuries, and widespread damage to infrastructure.
• The twin earthquakes struck in and around Caracas, the capital of Venezuela, on 24 June 2026.
• The first earthquake, measuring 7.2 magnitude, occurred approximately 160 kilometres west of Caracas.
• Just 39 seconds later, a second and stronger earthquake of 7.5 magnitude struck the region, further intensifying the devastation.
• The twin earthquakes are feared to have claimed tens of thousands of lives and caused large-scale destruction in affected areas.

Q4. The upcoming environmental directive in Haryana introduces a strict enforcement timeline for vehicle owners. On which exact date does the ‘No PUC, No Fuel’ policy become legally binding in the designated regions?

(a) August 1, 2026

(b) September 15, 2026

(c) January 1, 2027

(d) November 1, 2026

(e) October 1, 2026

Answer: e

Solution:

• The Haryana Government has decided to implement the “No Pollution Under Control (PUC) Certificate, No Fuel” policy in the National Capital Region (NCR) areas of the state from 1 October 2026.
• Under this policy, vehicles that do not possess a valid Pollution Under Control (PUC) certificate will not be allowed to purchase fuel at petrol pumps.

Q5. Veteran cinema personality K. Bhagyaraj passed away at the age of 73. He was widely celebrated as a legendary figure primarily in which regional film industry?

(a) Telugu cinema

(b) Kannada Cinema

(c) Malayalam cinema

(d) Tamil cinema

(e) Hindi cinema

Answer: d

Solution:

• Renowned Tamil film actor, director, screenwriter, and producer K. Bhagyaraj passed away in Chennai on 27 June 2026 following a severe cardiac arrest. He was 73 years old.
• K. Bhagyaraj was one of the most influential personalities in the Tamil film industry and was widely admired for his contributions as an actor, filmmaker, writer, and storyteller.

Q6. The International Day of Micro, Small and Medium-sized Enterprises (MSME Day) is celebrated annually on June 27. What is the designated official global theme for the MSME Day 2026 observance?

(a) Empowering MSMEs through Innovation and Sustainable Industrial Development

(b) MSMEs and the Green Transition: Building a Resilient Future

(c) Small Businesses, Big Impact: Fostering Global Economic Prosperity

(d) Resilience and Rebuilding: MSMEs at the Forefront of Local Economies

(e) Digital Transformation and Financial Inclusion for Micro Enterprises

Answer: a

Solution:

• International Day of Micro, Small and Medium-sized Enterprises (MSME Day) is observed annually on 27 June to recognize the vital contribution of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) to economic growth, employment generation, innovation, and sustainable development.
• The observance highlights the significant role of MSMEs in promoting inclusive economic growth, fostering entrepreneurship, reducing poverty, and creating employment opportunities across the world.

Theme for 2026

• The theme for International MSME Day 2026 is: “Empowering MSMEs through Innovation and Sustainable Industrial Development.”
• The theme emphasizes the importance of innovation, digital transformation, sustainability, and industrial development in strengthening MSMEs and enhancing their contribution to economic progress.

Origin of the Observance

• The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) established MSME Day through a resolution adopted on 6 April 2017.
• Since then, 27 June has been observed annually to acknowledge the role of MSMEs in achieving sustainable development and promoting global economic prosperity.

Q7. Under the newly introduced Responsible Business Conduct Third Amendment Directions, 2026, individual victims of digital payment fraud are eligible for capped compensation payouts under specific conditions. What is the maximum percentage of net loss or monetary cap an eligible customer can claim as compensation for a fraud loss up to ₹50,000?

(a) 100% of the net loss or ₹50,000, whichever is lower

(b) 85% of the net loss or ₹25,000, whichever is lower

(c) 75% of the net loss or ₹30,000, whichever is lower

(d) 90% of the net loss or ₹20,000, whichever is lower

(e) 50% of the net loss or ₹25,000, whichever is lower

Answer: b

Solution:

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued the RBI (Commercial Banks – Responsible Business Conduct) Third Amendment Directions, 2026, introducing a revised compensation framework for victims of fraudulent Electronic Banking Transactions (EBTs).
• The new directions will come into force from 1 January 2027.
• The revised framework aims to strengthen customer protection, enhance trust in the digital payment ecosystem, and reduce financial losses arising from cyber fraud and unauthorized electronic transactions.

Key Provisions of the New Framework

• Under the revised guidelines, a bona fide individual customer who suffers a digital payment fraud involving a loss of up to ₹50,000 will be eligible for compensation if the fraud is reported within five calendar days.
• The fraud must be reported both to the National Cyber Crime Portal or Cyber Helpline 1930 and to the concerned bank within the prescribed period.
• Eligible customers will receive compensation equal to 85% of the net loss or ₹25,000, whichever is lower.
• The compensation benefit can be availed only once during the customer’s lifetime.
• Customers will bear zero liability if the fraud occurs due to negligence on the part of the bank or because of a third-party system breach, provided the incident is reported within the stipulated time.
• The RBI has expanded customer protection to cover various forms of digital fraud, including phishing attacks, OTP theft, SIM swap fraud, coercion, fake UPI scams, and other fraudulent electronic banking transactions.

Responsibilities of Banks

• Banks are required to provide 24×7 channels for reporting electronic banking frauds.
• Instant SMS alerts must be sent for all electronic transactions above ₹500, along with email alerts to customers.
• Banks must strengthen their fraud detection systems, cybersecurity infrastructure, and customer protection mechanisms.
• In cases involving fraudulent credit card transactions, banks must provide a shadow reversal (temporary credit) within five calendar days of receiving the complaint.

Time Limits for Complaint Resolution

• Domestic fraud complaints must be resolved within 45 days.
• Cross-border fraud complaints must be resolved within 60 days.

Compensation Sharing Mechanism

• For eligible domestic fraudulent electronic banking transactions, the compensation burden will be shared among the RBI, the customer’s bank, and the beneficiary bank.
• In cross-border fraudulent transactions, compensation will be shared only between the RBI and the customer’s bank.
• In domestic fraud cases:
  • RBI will bear 65% of the compensation burden.
  • Customer’s bank will bear 10%.
  • Beneficiary bank will bear 10%.
  • The remaining amount will be covered under the compensation framework.
• In cross-border fraud cases:
  • RBI will bear 65% of the compensation.
  • Customer’s bank will bear the remaining 20%.
• If any amount is subsequently recovered after compensation has been paid, banks must appropriately adjust the compensation amount.

Q8. The Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation (IRCTC) recently flagged off the 11-day “Divine East Temple Tour” circuit to promote domestic cultural tourism. Which of the following specific train models is being utilized to operate this premium rail-based pilgrimage journey?

(a) Vande Bharat Express

(b) Bharat Gaurav Deluxe Tourist Train

(c) Tejas Corporate Express

(d) Maharaja Express Suite

(e) Amrit Bharat Express

Answer: b

Solution:

• In June, 2026, the Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation (IRCTC) has introduced a new tourism circuit titled “Divine East Temple Tour” under its Bharat Gaurav Deluxe Tourist Train initiative.
• The 11-day rail journey offers pilgrims and tourists an opportunity to visit some of the most prominent religious destinations and cultural heritage sites across Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal, and Jharkhand.

Q9.  The flagship policy introduced by Odisha Chief Minister Mohan Charan Majhi operates under the promotional acronym GO-EAST. What does the technical policy acronym GO-EAST formally stand for within this regulatory framework?

(a) Government of Odisha Eastern Investment Accelerator and Special Task Force

(b) Global Odisha Economic Advancement and Sustainable Trade Policy

(c) Government of Odisha Enterprise Acceleration and Strategic Technology Taskforce

(d) Growth of Odisha Eastern Agrarian Sector and Tourism Development Initiative

(e) Government of Odisha Eco-Industrial Alliances and Special Tariff Engine

Answer: a

Solution:

• In June 2026, the Government of Odisha unveiled the GO-EAST (Government of Odisha Eastern Investment Accelerator and Special Task Force) policy along with key amendments to the Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) 2022.
• The policy was announced by Chief Minister Mohan Charan Majhi during the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) Eastern Region Council Meeting held in Bhubaneswar.
• The GO-EAST initiative aims to attract fresh investments, accelerate project implementation, and promote industrial development, particularly in the state’s backward and underdeveloped districts.
• The policy serves as a dedicated investment facilitation platform designed to attract industries from eastern and northeastern India and encourage them to establish operations in Odisha.
• The initiative seeks to provide investors with faster government support, transparent approval mechanisms, and continuous monitoring of industrial projects.

Q10. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Women’s Forum 2026 was successfully convened to deliberate on women’s leadership, gender equality, and sustainable socio-economic inclusion. In which of the following international cities was this multilateral forum hosted?

(a) Tashkent, Uzbekistan

(b) Dushanbe, Tajikistan

(c) Bishkek, Kyrgyz Republic

(d) Astana, Kazakhstan

(e) Beijing, China

Answer: c

Solution:

• The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Women’s Forum 2026 was held in Bishkek, Kyrgyz Republic, on 26 June 2026.
• The forum brought together representatives from SCO member countries to discuss issues related to women’s leadership, gender equality, women’s empowerment, and their participation in social and economic development.
• The event provided a platform for member states to exchange experiences, share best practices, and strengthen cooperation in promoting women’s empowerment and inclusive development.

About the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)

• The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a Eurasian intergovernmental organization established in 2001.
• The organization aims to promote regional cooperation in areas such as security, economic development, connectivity, culture, and people-to-people exchanges.
• Member Countries: China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.
• Headquarters: Beijing, China.
• India became a full member of the SCO in 2017.

Daily Current Affairs: 26 June, 2026

Q1. The Ministry of External Affairs has officially revised the passport fee structure across all categories, effective from July 1, 2026. This fee revision was executed by enacting an amendment to which statutory rulebook?

(a) The Passports Act, 1967

(b) The Citizenship Rules, 2009

(c) The Passports Rules, 1980

(d) The Foreigners Order, 1948

(e) The Emigration Rules, 1983

Answer: c

Solution:

• In June 2026, the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) revised the passport fee structure across various categories through an amendment to the Passports Rules, 1980.
• The revised passport fees will come into effect from 1 July 2026.
• The fee revision follows the government’s clarification that a passport is primarily a travel document and not proof of citizenship.
• Under the revised rates, the application fee for an ordinary 36-page passport has been increased from ₹1,500 to ₹2,500, while the Tatkal fee for the same category has been raised from ₹3,500 to ₹5,000.
• Similarly, the fee for a 60-page ordinary passport has been increased from ₹2,000 to ₹3,500, whereas the Tatkal fee has been revised from ₹4,000 to ₹6,000.
• The revised fee structure was notified by the Ministry of External Affairs through a notification dated 20 June 2026, which also substitutes Schedule IV of the Passports Rules, 1980.
• The new schedule introduces separate categories for:
  • Applicants aged 18 years and above, including minors aged 15–18 years applying under the adult category.
  • Minor applicants below 18 years of age.

Revised Passport Fees (Effective from 1 July 2026)

About the Passports Rules, 1980

• The Passports Rules, 1980 were framed under the Passports Act, 1967.
• The rules govern passport issuance, fees, application procedures, and related administrative matters in India.

Q2. In June, 2026, Vice-President Shri C. P. Radhakrishnan released a book in New Delhi titled “Sanskritir Ratna Bhandar: Bhaowaiyar Itibritto”. This book systematically traces the historical evolution of Bhawaiya. What is Bhawaiya?

(a) A traditional classical dance form of Odisha

(b) A rural folk music genre of North Bengal and Assam

(c) A traditional shadow puppetry style of Kerala

(d) A rare handloom weaving technique of Tripura

(e) An ancient martial art practice of Manipur

Answer: b

Solution:

• On 25 June 2026, Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan released the book titled “Sanskritir Ratna Bhandar: Bhaowaiyar Itibritto” (Bhawaiya: A Cultural Treasure and Its Historical Journey) in New Delhi.
• The book presents a comprehensive study of Bhawaiya, a prominent folk music tradition of North Bengal, Assam, and adjoining regions.
• It systematically traces the historical evolution of Bhawaiya music and offers a fresh perspective on its origin, development, and cultural significance.
• The publication highlights the rich heritage of the Bhawaiya tradition and its contribution to the cultural identity of eastern and northeastern India.
• The book also seeks to preserve and promote this traditional folk art form by documenting its historical journey and artistic evolution.

Q3. India finished at the top of the medal standings at the ISSF Junior World Championships 2026. In which city and country was this prestigious shooting tournament hosted?

(a) Lima, Peru

(b) Cairo, Egypt

(c) Baku, Azerbaijan

(d) Changwon, South Korea

(e) Suhl, Germany

Answer: e

Solution:

• India finished the ISSF Junior World Championships 2026 in Suhl, Germany, with a total of 25 medals, comprising 7 gold, 8 silver, and 10 bronze medals.
• With this impressive performance, India topped the overall medal standings for the second consecutive edition of the championship.
• India had also finished at the top of the medal table in the previous edition held in Lima, Peru, where the contingent won 24 medals.

Q4. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has approved the appointment of which 1993-batch Indian Police Service (IPS) officer as the new Director of the Intelligence Bureau (IB) for a two-year tenure starting June 30, 2026?

(a) Shri Ravi Sinha

(b) Shri Samant Goel

(c) Shri Tapan Kumar Deka

(d) Shri Mahesh Dixit

(e) Shri Sanjay Kumar Mishra

Answer: d

Solution:

• In June 2026, the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, approved the appointment of Mahesh Dixit as the new Director of the Intelligence Bureau (IB).
• Mahesh Dixit is a 1993-batch Indian Police Service (IPS) officer of the Andhra Pradesh cadre.
• He will assume charge as the Director of the Intelligence Bureau on 30 June 2026, succeeding Tapan Kumar Deka.
• The appointment has been made for a two-year tenure from the date of assuming office or until further orders, whichever is earlier.
• Mahesh Dixit succeeds Tapan Kumar Deka, a 1988-batch IPS officer of the Himachal Pradesh cadre, who was appointed as the IB Director in 2022.

Q5. With Bangladesh officially joining the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA), the total number of member countries in this India-led global initiative has risen to which milestone figure?

(a) 15 member countries

(b) 22 member countries

(c) 27 member countries

(d) 35 member countries

(e) 41 member countries

Answer: c

Solution:

• In June 2026, Bangladesh joined the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA), taking the total number of member countries in the alliance to 27.
• Bangladesh’s entry into the alliance is considered an important step toward strengthening tiger conservation, biodiversity protection, and regional cooperation in South Asia.
• The development also reinforces India’s environmental diplomacy and its leadership in global wildlife conservation initiatives.

About the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA)

• The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) is a treaty-based intergovernmental international organization and a legal entity headquartered in New Delhi, India.
• The alliance was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in April 2023 during the commemoration of 50 years of Project Tiger.
• The IBCA became a full-fledged treaty-based international organization on 23 January 2025.

Q6. Which supercomputer emerged as the world’s most powerful system in the 67th TOP500 Supercomputer Rankings released in June 2026, officially displacing the USA’s El Capitan?

(a) Frontier (USA)

(b) LineShine (China)

(c) Aurora (USA)

(d) Jupiter (Germany)

(e) Fugaku (Japan)

Answer: b

Solution:

• In June 2026, the 67th edition of the TOP500 Supercomputer Rankings was released during the International Supercomputing (ISC) High Performance 2026 Conference held in Hamburg, Germany.
• The TOP500 is a biannual ranking that evaluates and lists the world’s most powerful supercomputers based on their computational performance.
• According to the latest rankings, China’s LineShine, installed at the National Supercomputing Center in Shenzhen, emerged as the world’s fastest supercomputer, replacing the United States’ El Capitan at the top position.
• The LineShine supercomputer is reported to be nearly 26 times faster than India’s most powerful supercomputer, Shakti Cloud.
• India’s Shakti Cloud secured the 32nd position globally with a computing performance of 84.31 petaflops.

Top Supercomputers in TOP500 Rankings 2026

Q7. The International Day Against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking is observed globally every year on June 26. In which year did the United Nations General Assembly officially pass the resolution to establish this day?

(a) 1973

(b) 1987

(c) 1995

(d) 2001

(e) 2015

Answer: b

Solution:

• International Day Against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking is observed globally on 26 June 2026.
• The day aims to strengthen international action and cooperation to achieve the goal of a society free from drug abuse and illicit drug trafficking.

• On 7 December 1987, the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) adopted a resolution proclaiming 26 June as the International Day Against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking.

Q8. Queen Máxima of the Netherlands visited India from in June, 2026, to evaluate the scaling impact of India’s Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI). In what specific international capacity did she undertake this official visit?

(a) President of the European Central Bank

(b) UN Secretary-General’s Special Advocate for Financial Health (UNSGSA)

(c) Managing Director of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)

(d) Chief Global Envoy for the World Economic Forum (WEF)

(e) Chairperson of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

Answer: b

Solution:

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi met Queen Máxima of the Netherlands during her visit to India and discussed the transformative impact of India’s Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) on financial inclusion and public service delivery.
• The discussions focused on how India’s DPI-led initiatives have made financial services more accessible, affordable, and inclusive, while improving the Ease of Living and empowering citizens on a large scale.
• Queen Máxima visited India from 23 to 25 June 2026 in her capacity as the United Nations Secretary-General’s Special Advocate for Financial Health (UNSGSA).
• The visit aimed to assess how India’s digital public infrastructure is helping citizens build financial resilience and expand access to financial services.

Q9. The 12th edition of the India-EU Human Rights Dialogue, which was co-chaired by Additional Secretary Piyush Srivastava and EU Ambassador Hervé Delphin on June 24, 2026, was hosted in which of the following cities?

(a) Brussels, Belgium

(b) Geneva, Switzerland

(c) New Delhi, India

(d) Strasbourg, France

(e) Berlin, Germany

Answer: c

Solution:

• The 12th India–European Union (EU) Human Rights Dialogue was held in New Delhi on 24 June 2026.
• The dialogue served as an important platform for India and the European Union to exchange views on human rights issues and strengthen cooperation in the field of human rights.
• The Indian side was co-chaired by Piyush Srivastava, Additional Secretary (Europe West), Ministry of External Affairs (MEA).
• The European Union delegation was led by Hervé Delphin, Ambassador of the European Union to India.
• The dialogue provided an opportunity for both sides to discuss developments related to human rights, democratic values, and the promotion and protection of fundamental freedoms.

Q10. In June 2026, Union Minister Piyush Goyal traveled to London and was honored with the “Special Award for Exceptional Leadership in Elevating UK-India Relations.” Which Union Ministry does he currently head in the Government of India?

(a) Ministry of External Affairs

(b) Ministry of Finance

(c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

(d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

(e) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

Answer: c

Solution:

• In June 2026, Union Minister of Commerce and Industry Piyush Goyal received the Special Award for Exceptional Leadership in Elevating UK–India Relations at the Annual UK–India Awards 2026 held in London, United Kingdom.
• The award recognizes his significant contribution to strengthening the strategic, economic, and trade relations between India and the United Kingdom.