Directions (1-5): In each of the following questions a grammatically correct and meaningful sentence is given with four words given in bold in each. Which of the following words should replace each other to form a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. The meaning can be different from the one in question.

Q1. The Central government is unable to provide the funds while Kerala has been stopped in its (A)tracks from seeking resources from (B) abroad, either from the Kerala (c)diaspora or from friendly (D) overseas governments.

(a) C-B

(b) A-D

(c) B-D

(d) A-B

(e) No Interchange Possible

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Q2.  Immediately the sympathies of the (A)police and (B)magistrates, some sections of the media and (C)public opinion swing towards the (D)perpetrator, not the victim.

(a) A-C

(b) A-B

(c) B-D

(d) B-A

(e) No Interchange Possible

Q3. It is (A) imperative that there be course corrections; otherwise the (B)exercise runs the risk of fueling a (C) parallel movement against the state by those being (D)victimised now.

(a) A-D

(b) A-C

(c) A-B

(d) B-D

(e) No interchange is possible

Q4.  The tsunami of 2004 and the (A) threat of piracy in the Indian Ocean provided India an (B)opportunity to test its new posture. Everybody was (C)grateful, but it made no difference to India’s claim to (D)permanent membership.

(a) No interchange possible

(b) A-B

(c) B-C

(d)B-D

(e) A-D

Q5.  The government has (A) tampered with institutions by appointing its own people to positions of (B)authority, and by using the (C) Enforcement Directorate, Income Tax authorities, the Central Bureau of Investigation and the (D)police as bulldozers to flatten out any site of opposition.

(a) A-C

(b) B-D

(c) C-D and A-B

(d) C-D

(e) A-D

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Directions (6-10): In each of the following questions a sentence is given with a word given in BOLD. Corresponding to each question three sentences are given with the use of the same word. From the options choose the sentences which give a DIFFERENT MEANING for the word used in the sentence above. The meaning used in the sentence(s) should be different from the one used in the main sentence.

Q6. The leaders of our ruling dispensation seem to have no respect for the rule of law, nor for the rules that regulate speech in public spaces.

(I) Because the soldier had saved his entire unit, the president gave him dispensation for his wartime crimes.

(II) Scholarship is conveyed to a wider audience than under the old dispensation.

(III) At the close of the Jubilee this dispensation was extended to all who had expired on the way to Rome.

(a) Only I

(b) Only II

(c) Only III

(d) Both I and II

(e) Both I and III

Q7. This is the latest instalment in the rather sordid story of institutional decay in India, overseen by the leaders of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).

(I) He remained, however, uncertain how to do so without immersing himself further in Lydia Larkin’s sordid activities.

(II) The overcrowded housing conditions were sordid and degrading.

(III) Everyone knows of the bank’s manager sordid plan to steal the money.

(a) Only III

(b) Only II

(c) Both I and II

(d) Only I

(e) Both II and III

Q8. Competitive federalism, in the context of interaction with foreign countries, promoted by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has proved to be a double-edged sword.

(I) In 1761 he was promoted to be member of council, under the presidency of Mr Vansittart, who had been introduced by Clive

(II) The industry was actively promoted by a Frenchman named Jumel, in the service of Mehemet Ali, from 1820 onwards with great success.

(III) He actively promoted the incorporation of the left bank of the Rhine with France.

(a) Only III

(b) Both I and II

(c) Only I

(d) Both II and III

(e)All of the above

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Q9. When India’s aspiration for permanent membership of the UN Security Council met with strong resistance, New Delhi hit upon the idea of forcing a vote in the General Assembly.

(I) The president’s healthcare plan drew a lot of resistance from his political rivals.

(II) The employees’ showed their resistance to the salary cuts by picketing outside the factory.

(III) He also investigated electrical endosmosis and the electrical resistance of electrolytes.

(a) Only II

(b) Both I and II

(c) Only II

(d) Only III

(e) None of the above

Q10.  The constitutional framework does not provide thick or substantive conceptions of how we shall think, and in what we shall believe.

(I) Why should I take the herb when there is no substantive proof it will ease my pain

(II) Not only do we hear of these varieties of practice, but also of the laying on of hands; together with prayer as a substantive rite unconnected with baptism.

(III) They said no substantive objections to the agreement have been raised

(a) Only I

(b) Only II

(c) Both II and III

(d) All of the above

(e) None of the above

Directions (11-15): In the questions given below a sentence is given with two blanks in each. Corresponding to each question two columns are given with three words in each column. Which combination of words from the two columns will perfectly fit into the blanks to make the sentence contextually correct and meaningful.

Q11. Mutual political suspicion and a lack of ……………. of the complexities of the international situation have brought about a confrontation. The Chief Minister may have even made …………. and tactical misjudgments.

Column I Column II
A. Appreciation D. Acceptable
B.Acknowledgement E. Diplomatic
C. Plethora F. Strategic

(a) C-E

(b) A-F

(c) B-F and A-E

(d) B-D

(e) C-D

Q12. The investigation also ………. that another pilot flying as Staff On Duty entered the cockpit after pressing the cockpit buzzer several times. The pilot in command ………… that he allowed the SOD inside the cockpit because the buzzer was distracting.

Column I Column II
A. Divulged D. Advanced
B. Rejected E. Submitted
C.Communicated F. Recommended

(a) C-D

(b) B-E

(c) A-E

(d) A-F

(e) B-E

Q13. A committee, chaired by Union Environment Minister Harsh Vardhan, has ……… wildlife clearance to the Mumbai-Ahmedabad high-speed train corridor that ……… upon a flamingo sanctuary and the Sanjay Gandhi National Park, home to leopards, in Mumbai.

Column I Column II
A. Alienated D. Encroaches
B. Estranged E. Repelled
C. Accorded F. Admonish

(a) A-F

(b) B-D and A-E

(c) C-F

(d) C-D

(e) B-E

Q14. The CBI says there was no proper response to the earlier ………. it sent to the Police Commissioner, and alleges that he could have destroyed evidence that was initially gathered by the Special Investigation Team that he had …….. in the initial stage of the probe.

Column I Column II
A. Declaration D. Supervised
B. Summonses E. Govern
C. Command F. Administered

(a) A-D

(b) C-E

(c) B-E

(d) B-F and C-E

(e) B-F and B-D

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Q15. Following Taylor, we can rightly wonder why political power should be exercised, implemented and …………. without rules. Assertions of political power …………  affect our interests and our projects.

Column I Column II
A. fickle D. sabotage
B. executed E. adversely
C. finished F. negatively

(a) A-E

(b) C-D

(c) A-C and B-E

(d) B-E

(e) C-F

Solutions

S1. Ans.(c)

Sol. B-D can replace each other and form a meaningful sentence. “Abroad” and “overseas” can here be used interchangeably as they imply similar meaning and can be used at each other’s place without altering the actual context of the sentence.

“Diaspora” is the spreading out of group of the people belonging to similar identity/ nation.

S2. Ans.(b)

Sol. A-B can replace each other and form a meaningful sentence.”Police” and “Magistrates” can be exchanged as they do not alter the actual meaning of the given statement. Also, “perpetrators” which means people who carries out a harmful, illegal, or immoral act and “public” can not replace other highlighted words of the sentence.

S3. Ans.(e)

Sol. No interchange is possible. As none of the given highlighted words can substitute each other, there is no scope for using the words interchangeably without altering their meaning.

S4. Ans.(e)

Sol. No interchange is possible. As none of the given highlighted words can substitute each other, there is no scope for using the words interchangeably without altering their meaning.

S5. Ans.(d)

Sol. C-D can replace each other and form a meaningful sentence. Here, “Enforcement Directorate” and “Police” can be interchanged as the statement mentions about a whole lot of bureaucrats and police. Thus placing Enforcement Directorate and Police at each others position will imply the similar meaning.

Also, “tampered” which implies interfere with (something) in order to cause damage or make unauthorized alterations and “authority” cannot replace any other highlighted words within the statement.

S6. Ans. (e)

Sol. In the given sentence, “Dispensation” implies a political, religious, or social system prevailing at a particular time which is similar to II. In statements I and III, “Dispensation” is used in context of exemption from a rule or usual requirement.

Hence, option (e) is the correct answer.

S7. Ans. (b)

Sol. In the given sentence “sordid” means something involving immoral or dishonourable actions and motives which is similar to the I and III. Whereas, in statement II, sordid implies something dirty or squalid.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

S8. Ans. (c)

Sol. In the given sentence promoted is used in context of supporting or actively encouraging something for its further progress which is similar to the statements given in II and III. Whereas, in statement I, promoted implies to raise (someone) to a higher position or rank.

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

S9. Ans. (d)

Sol. In the given statement, resistance implies the refusal to accept or comply with something which is similar to the statements I and II. Whereas, in statement III, resistance is used in context of the degree to which a substance or device opposes the passage of an electric current.

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

S10. Ans. (e)

Sol. In the given statement, substantive has been having a firm basis in reality and so important, meaningful, or considerable. In Statements I, II and III, substantive imparts almost a similar meaning as given in the original sentence.

S11. Ans (c)

Sol. B-F and A-E are the correct pair to be substituted in the blanks given within the statement. Appreciation and acknowledgement are synonymous to each other and fit the first blank perfectly. Similarly, diplomatic and strategic can be used interchangeably to define something that is related to diplomacy.

S12. Ans (c)

Sol. A-E is the correct pair to be substituted in the blanks given within the statement. Here divulged implies make known/ revealing (private or sensitive information) and submitted is used in context of accepting to the authority.

S13. Ans (d)

Sol. C-D is the correct pair to be substituted in the blanks given within the statement. Here accorded means give or grant someone (power, status, or recognition) and encroaches means intrude on/ trespass.

“Estranged” means  no longer close or affectionate to someone which is also similar to “Alienated”.

“Repelled” here implies drive or force (an attack or attacker) back or away.

“Admonish” means warn or reprimand someone firmly.

S14. Ans (e)

Sol. B-D and B-F are the correct pair to be substituted in the blanks given within the statement. Here, “Summons” implies orders to appear before a judge or magistrate, or the writ containing such an order. Also, as the police commissioner had observed and directed the execution of investigation, both, “Supervised” and “Administered” can be used to fill in the second blank.

S15. Ans (d)

Sol. B-E is the correct pair to be substituted in the blanks given within the statement. “Executed” here implies put (a plan, order, or course of action) into effect and “adversely” implies in a way that prevents success or development; harmfully or unfavorably. Therefore Executed and Adversely perfectly fit in the blanks given in the statement.

Also, here “fickle” implies changing frequently, especially as regards one’s loyalties or affections and “sabotage” means deliberately destroy, damage, or obstruct (something), especially for political or military advantage.

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 Directions (1-5): In the questions given below, there is a sentence in which one part is given in bold. The part given in bold may or may not be grammatically correct. Choose the best alternative among the four given which can replace the part in bold to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the part given in bold is already correct and does not require any replacement, choose option (e), i.e. “No replacement required” as your answer.

Q1. Supreme Court had correctly deduced whether the spate of lynchings and emboldening of mobs is a law and order issue needing administrative redress.

(a) Supreme Court had correctly deducing that

(b) Supreme Court has correctly deduced whether

(c) Supreme Court has been correctly deduced that

(d) Supreme Court has correctly deduced that

(e) No replacement required

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Q2. Electric power is the way to go for the transport sector, gave the need to curbinggreenhouse gas emissions and air pollution.

(a) to give the need to curbing the

(b) to give the need to curb

(c)given the need to curb

(d) gave the need to curb

(e) No replacement required

Q3.This Independence Day, when Prime Minister NarendraModi announced India’s manned space mission by 2022, among the surprising were Indian Space Research Organisation (Isro) scientists.

(a) among those surprised were

(b) between the surprised were

(c) amongst the surprised are

(d) with those surprising are

(e) No replacement required

Q4. It was the curiosityto know of the reason for behind the fall of an apple which made Isaac Newton invent the Laws of Motion.

(a) of knowing the reason for

(b) of knowing the reason

(c) to know of the reason

(d) for knowing of the reason

(e) No replacement required

Q5. It is not only the change but ‘the rate of change’ also that is increasing as we are moving forward in the journey of human evolution.

(a) we have been moving forward on

(b) we have moved forward to

(c) we were moving forward to

(d) we had moved forward in

(e) No replacement required

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Directions (6-10): In the questions given below, some sentences/phrases are given, out of which one may or may not be grammatically correct. Find the grammatically correct sentence/phrase out of the given options. If all of the given sentences/phrases are correct, mark option (e) i.e. “All are correct” as your answer.

Q6. (a) Where do you leave at the moment?

(b) They killed Tom as an example to the other prisoners.

(c) He gave an explanation about for he had been absent.

(d) The present prime minister was not present to the ceremony.

(e) All are correct

Q7. (a) The principal presented each of the graduate with diploma.

(b) She was taken out by that fake gold certificate scandal and lost most of her money.

(c) Modern cars differ from the early ones in many ways.

(d) The actual price was lower than I thought it will be.

(e) All are correct

Q8. (a) I can’t confirm that that’s the actual number of deaths.

(b) Preventive measures are much more effective then the actual treatment.

(c) In order to avoid being unjust, the judge kept all decision logical and objective.

(d) The witness weren’t able to describe the robber.

(e) All are correct

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Q9. (a) The article recounted the events for the past year.

(b) A known mistake is preferred than an unknown truth.

(c) The moon as well as the stars give us light at night.

(d) Although he had many toys, his greed made him want more.

(e) All are correct

Q10. (a) What other options do we have?

(b) I’d never been to Boston before.

(c) He has never been scolded by his father.

(d) A newspaper tells us what is happening in the world.

(e) All are correct

Direction (11-15): Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below them.

(A)  Close to 82% of workers with secondary education, 76.5% of those with higher secondary education, 48% of graduates and 45% of postgraduates in the industry are employed in jobs that require lower education levels.

 (B) If it wasn’t already clear that India is walking a tightrope between demographic dividend and demographic disaster, a new working paper from Icrier, by PrateekKukreja, provides fresh evidence of this.

(C) Using data from the 68th round of the NSS Employment and Unemployment survey, Kukreja shows that the educational mismatch where a worker’s level of education is either lower or higher than the standard required to carry out her work in India’s textiles and clothes (T&C) industry stood at a whopping 68% in 2011-12.

(D) This mismatch ratio is much higher than the overall educational mismatch ratio in Europe (33%) and even Turkey (54%).

(E) While 26% of the T&C workers in India were employed in jobs that required no formal education, 88% in ones that require upto eight years of education and 4% in jobs that require graduation or higher levels of education, the proportion of over-educated workers is drastically high.

Q11. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence of the coherent paragraph?

(a) B

(b) A

(c) D

(d) F

(e) None of these

Q12. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence of the coherent paragraph?

(a) B

(b) A

(c) D

(d) F

(e) None of thesE

Q13. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence of the coherent paragraph?

(a) B

(b) A

(c) D

(d) F

(e) None of these

Q14. Which of the following is the FOURTH sentence of the coherent paragraph?

(a) B

(b) A

(c) D

(d) E

(e) None of these

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Q15. Which of the following is the FIFTH sentence of the coherent paragraph?

(a) B

(b) A

(c) D

(d) F

(e) None of these

SOLUTIONS

S1. Ans. (d)

Sol. The most appropriate phrase to replace the highlighted phrase to frame a grammatically viable and contextually meaningful sentence is “Supreme Court has correctly deduced that”. It is to be noted that “whether” is used to express a doubt or choice between alternatives. Hence, option (d) is the most suitable answer choice.

S2. Ans. (c)

Sol. The most appropriate phrase to replace the highlighted phrase to frame a grammatically viable and contextually meaningful sentence is “given the need to curb”. Hence, option (c) is the most suitable answer choice.

S3. Ans. (a)

Sol. The most appropriate phrase to replace the highlighted phrase to frame a grammatically viable and contextually meaningful sentence is “among those surprised were”. Between is used when naming distinct, individual items (can be 2, 3, or more) while among is used when the items are part of a group, or are not specifically named. Hence, option (a) is the most suitable answer choice.

S4. Ans. (b)

Sol. The most appropriate phrase to replace the highlighted phrase to frame a grammatically viable and contextually meaningful sentence is “of knowing the reason”. Hence, option (b) is the most suitable answer choice.

S5. Ans. (e)

Sol. The given sentence along with the highlighted phrase is grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. Since it does not require any replacement, option (e) becomes the most suitable answer choice.

S6. Ans. (b)

Sol. All the sentences are incorrect except for sentence (b). In sentence (a) “leave” should be replaced by ‘live” to frame a contextually meaningful sentence. In sentence (b) “for” should be replaced by “why”. To correct sentence (d), replace the preposition “to” with “at” as ‘at’ is used to refer the exact addresses or intersections, we use the preposition at. Therefore, option (b) is the most suitable answer choice.

S7. Ans. (c)

Sol. All the sentences are grammatically incorrect except for sentence (c). In sentence (a) ‘graduate’ should be replaced by its plural form “graduates”. In sentence (b), there is an error of phrasal verb. “Taken out” should be replaced by “taken in” as it means  to deceive or swindle someone. In sentence (d) It should be noted that if you are writing about past events, you use ‘would’ to indicate something that was in the future at that point in time, but is not necessarily in the future right now. In other words, you use would to preserve the future aspect when talking about the past. Therefore, ‘will’ should be replaced by ‘would’. Therefore, option (c) is the most suitable answer choice.

S8. Ans. (a)

Sol. All the sentences are grammatically incorrect except for sentence (a). In sentence (b) “then” should be replaced by “than”. In sentence (c) since the determiner “all” has been used the noun associated to it should be in its plural form. Therefore, “decision” should be replaced by “decisions”. In sentence (d), since “witness” is used in its singular form the verb should be “wasn’t”. Thus, since all the sentences are incorrect except for sentence (a), option (a) becomes the most suitable answer choice.

S9. Ans. (d)

Sol. All the given sentences are incorrect except for sentence (d). In sentence (a) “for” should be replaced by “of”. In sentence (b) “preferred” should be replaced by “better” ; or “than” should be replaced by “over”. In sentence (c), “give” should be replaced by “gives” as well as does not make the subject plural, therefore, the verb linked to the subject should be singular as well. Since, only sentence (d) is grammatically correct, option (d) becomes the most suitable answer choice.

S10. Ans. (e)

Sol. All the given sentences are grammatically correct and contextually meaningful, therefore, option (e) becomes the most suitable answer choice.

S11. Ans. (c)

Sol. The sentence can be arranged in the logical sequence as BCDEA as the paragraph is describing about the study that reveals gap between the skills available and skills required. Since, sentence (D) is the third sentence, option (c) is the most suitable answer choice.

S12. Ans. (e)

Sol. The sentence can be arranged in the logical sequence as BCDEA as the paragraph is describing about the study that reveals gap between the skills available and skills required. Since, none of the given options mentions sentence (C), option (e) becomes the most suitable answer choice.

S13. Ans. (a)

Sol. The sentence can be arranged in the logical sequence as BCDEA as the paragraph is describing about the study that reveals gap between the skills available and skills required. Since, sentence (D) is the first sentence; option (a) is the most suitable answer choice.

S14. Ans. (d)

Sol. The sentence can be arranged in the logical sequence as BCDEA as the paragraph is describing about the study that reveals gap between the skills available and skills required. Since, sentence (D) is the fourth sentence, option (d) is the most suitable answer choice.

S15. Ans. (b)

Sol. The sentence can be arranged in the logical sequence as BCDEA as the paragraph is describing about the study that reveals gap between the skills available and skills required. Since, sentence (D) is the fifth sentence, option (b) is the most suitable answer choice.

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Directions (1-5): Read the following passage and answer the questions as directed.

Artificial intelligence (AI) is all the rage these days. A recent article noted that ‘robots’ — shorthand for AI in the tabloids — will be able to write a fiction bestseller within 50 years. I suppose that would be shocking to me as a novelist if most fiction bestsellers were not already being written by ‘robots’. Or so one feels, keeping publishing and other vogues in mind: a bit of this, a bit of that, a dash of something else, and voila you have a bestseller! In that sense, perhaps the rise of AI will make us reconsider what we mean by human intelligence. This discussion has been neglected for far too long. Take my field: literature. The Chinese company, Cheers Publishing, lately offered a collection of poems written by a computer program. So, are poets, generally considered to be suicidal in any case, jumping off the cliffs in droves as a consequence? Well, this is a selection from one of the AI poems I found online: “The rain is blowing through the sea / A bird in the sky / A night of light and calm / Sunlight / Now in the sky / Cool heart / The savage north wind / When I found a new world.”

Yes, there are aspiring poets — and sometimes established ones — who write like this, connecting words centripetally or centrifugally to create an effect. I think they should have been pushed off literary cliffs a long time ago. Because this is not poetry; this is just the technique of assembling words like poetry. There is a difference between the intelligence required to write poetry and the skills required to write it. That poetic intelligence is lost without the required poetic skills, but the skills on their own do not (A)suffice either. The fact that lines like this, written by AI, can be considered poetry does not reflect on the intelligence of AI. It reflects on the intelligence of those readers, writers, critics, editors, publishers and academics who have not yet distinguished between gimmickry and mimicry on the one side and the actual freshness of a chiselled line on the other. But this is a small example. Surely, AI might also make (B) …………………………………………………………, including that of considering something like IQ to be a sufficient index of human mental capacity! Because if we think that AI can replace human intelligence, then we are simply not thinking hard enough.

(C)One of the major (1) activity here is that of considering (2) intelligence to be something (3) different from and raised above the (4) failures of living. This leads to the misconception that intelligence can be (D)……….. to something else — say, a robot — without becoming something else. Human intelligence cannot be passed on to something else: What is “passed on” is always a different kind of ‘intelligence’. Even the arguments that AI — or, as in the past, robots — can enable human beings to lead a gloriously workless existence is based on a similar misconception. Because human intelligence is embedded in human existence, ‘work’ as human activity in the world is not something human beings can do without.

Q1.  Which of the following words can replace the word given in bold in (A) without changing the meaning of the sentence?

(a) disperse

(b) squander

(c) dissipate

(d) serve

(e) spread

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Q2. Out of the following options which option does support the statement “There is a difference between the intelligence required to write poetry and the skills required to write it,” made by the author in the paragraph?

(a) There are aspiring poets who write like this, connecting words centripetally or centrifugally to create an effect, this is not poetry; this is just the technique of assembling words like poetry.

(b) that would be shocking to me as a novelist if most fiction bestsellers were not already being written by ‘robots.’

(c) The lines written by AI considered as poetry does not reflect on the intelligence of AI.

(d) Both (b) and (c)

(e) None of the above

Q3. Which of the following phrases should fill the blank given in (B) to make it grammatically and contextually correct and meaningful?

(a) has always been a mistake to expect him to ‘solve’ problems without human effort

(b) us discover our basic lack of intelligence in other areas

(c) often atheistic fans of AI who believe that it is ‘The solution’ are making the same mistake

(d) has had a crucial role in shaping cognitive capacity and brain evolution

(e) None of the Above

Q4. The sentence given in (C) has four words given in bold. Amongst given bolded words, which of the followings must replace each other to make the sentence contextually correct and meaningful.

(a) 2-4

(b) 2-3

(c) 1-4

(d) 3-4

(e) 1-3

Q5. Which of the following words given in the options should come at the place marked as ‘D’ in the above paragraph to make it grammatically and contextually meaningful and correct? Also, the word should fill the two sentences given below to make them contextually correct and meaningful?

(i) They aim to prevent women from being ……………… to a secondary role.

(ii) United were ………………….. to division two. 

(a) forecasted

(b) relegated

(c) researched

(d) published

(e) vanished

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Directions (6-10): Read the following passage and answer the questions as directed.

We expect individuals (I) to take charge of their lives, to assume responsibility for their decisions. But when individuals group together, a problem arises. Groups can’t take charge of themselves, nor can every member simultaneously take charge of the entire group. Someone from the group is invariably asked to show the way, to become the primary agent, to lead. Yet, not everyone who occupies high office is a leader. A person who merely (II) or has management skills is not a leader. Moreover, not everyone who assumes the role of a leader is able to play it well. What qualities then make for a leader? Which (A)virtues are required to provide ethical leadership? I suppose there is little new (III). But let me still give it a shot in the hope that it serves as a good reminder. And in the election year, why not focus on qualities necessary for political leadership?

If a person is chosen to lead the group, it is her responsibility to take care of the interest of each person of the entire group. This often (B)…………….. putting collective interest before her own interest or that of her preferred group. For this to happen, she must first be able to identify the common good, to have a grasp of what is acceptable to all, to have an inclusive vision. This requires an infinite capacity to listen to others, to learn from them, to have the intellectual ability to critically examine and evaluate what everyone wants and needs, and then put them all together. Since this intellectual formulation can only be the first step, an estimate of the real quality of a decision is not known until it is implemented; ………………….(C)……………………………..This requires him to keep his ear to the ground, listen patiently to criticism to judge if his policies are working. He must not be defensive when criticised, or evade uncomfortable questions, but face criticism head on and be able to sift the wheat from the chaff. It also necessitates that a leader show flexibility and an ability for course correction by admitting mistakes. He should know that one’s stature is not diminished by accepting fallibility. A leader must be a good communicator, and that is greatly helped if he has a way with words. But all the rhetorical flourish is of no avail if the speech lacks sincerity and conviction. Finally, a good leader knows that nothing can be achieved without the collective expertise and wisdom of a support team.

It is equally tempting to pick those one has taken a fancy to, who are personally loyal. But such people often lack spine. (D)Fearful people with poor ability can never offer good advice to their leader and could allow bad decisions to prevail that push the country down a ruinous path. Besides, they are often among the first to backstab the leader once out of power. Thus, personal likes and dislikes too must be set aside.

Q6.  Which of the following words can replace the word given in bold in (A) without changing the meaning of the sentence?

(a) gentry

(b) Fortes

(c) rage

(d)tantrum

(e)rampage

Q7. In the Question below three phrases are given which must be filled in the positions given in I,II and III in the passage. From the options given below, choose the correct order of phrases that should be filled in the positions given.

A. one can say on this matter

B. to be their own leaders

C. coordinates the actions of others

(a) ABC

(b) CAB

(c) BCA

(d) BAC

(e) ACB

Q8. Which of the following words should fill in the blank in (B) to make a contextually correct and meaningful sentence?

(a) arouse

(b) entails

(c) sheers

(d) garners

(e) evokes

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Q9. Two sentences are given in italics on both sides of C. Which of the following statements can come in between the two sentences in place of C so as to maintain the continuity of the paragraph?

(a) this means that our leaders must owe supreme loyalty to nothing

(b) understand the purpose of the job, can speak their mind, and are able, without fear

(c) such persons can be identified only by one who possesses these qualities

(d) Its deficiencies begin to show up only when put into practice.

(e)None of the above

Q10. In the passage given, a sentence D is given in Italics. There may or may not be an error in one part of the sentence. Choose the part which has an error in it as your answer.

(a) Fearful people with poor ability can

(b) never offer good advice to their leader

(c) and could allow bad decisions to prevail

(d) that push the country down a ruinous path.

(e) no error

Directions (11-15): Read the following passage and answer the questions as directed.

Start-ups troubled by the so-called angel tax may soon receive some (A)……….. from the government. On Monday, the Centre set up a five-member working committee to look into revising the (B)norms of the angel tax imposed on start-ups. The tax, which was first introduced in 2012 to curb money-laundering through the (i) at bloated prices, has caused a lot of anguish among start-up investors in the country. Start-up owners have complained that income tax officials have asked many start-ups to cough up money when they try to attract capital into their entities by issuing new shares. For its part, the IT department fears that start-ups may be used as convenient tools to launder illegally acquired money, so a tax on investments beyond a certain threshold is (ii). (C) But while the (1) unintended of such an angel tax may be (2) benefits, the arbitrary nature of it means the cost of (3) intent consequences could be larger than the supposed (4) justifiable. In trying to curb money-laundering, Section 56(2)(viib) of the Indian Income Tax Act, 1961 gives income tax officials a free hand to harass even genuine start-ups looking to raise investments for their growth. Under the Act, the IT department is free to arbitrarily decide the fair value of a company’s share and tax start-ups if the price at which their new shares are sold to investors is higher than the fair value of these shares. The broad-brush tax on all investments means an unnecessary cost is (iii)community simply because of the lack of better means at the government’s disposal to tackle black money.

The committee set up by the government will, among other things, consider raising the threshold beyond which new investments into start-ups will be taxed. It is expected that start-ups with aggregate paid-up share capital and share premium of less than ₹25 crore, against the previous threshold of only ₹10 crore, will not be taxed while attracting new investment. This would definitely make life easier to a certain extent for angel investors and start-ups. But it will not address the real problem with the angel tax, which has to do with the unbridled power that it vests in the hands of the income tax authorities. Investors, foreign or domestic, may become wary of investing in new ideas when they are taxed while risking money on untested ventures. So the government should look to withdraw the angel tax and focus instead on building the capability to better identify and rein in illegal wealth. Otherwise it risks killing the nascent start-up ecosystem in the country.

Q11.  Which of the following words should fill in the blank in (A) to make a contextually correct and meaningful sentence?

(a) collusion

(b) commotion

(c) concession

(d) digression

(e) fluctuation

Q12.  Which of the following words can replace the word given in bold in (B) without changing the meaning of the sentence?

(a)Measures

(b)Deviations

(c)Regulations

(d)Standards

(e)Abbreviations

Q13. In the question below three phrases are given which must be filled in the positions given in i, ii and iii in the passage. From the options given below, choose the correct order of phrases that should be filled in the positions given.

A. necessary to deter such shady operations

B. sale of shares of private unlisted companies

C. imposed on the wider start-up

(a) ABC

(b) CAB

(c) BCA

(d) BAC

(e) ACB

Q14. The sentence given in C has four words given in bold. Amongst given bolded words, which of the followings must replace each other to make the sentence contextually correct and meaningful.

(a) 2-4

(b) 1-3

(c) 1-4

(d) 3-4

(e) Both (a) and (b)

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Q15. As per the information given in the passage, out of the following options which option does best explain the term “angel investor”?

(a) Angel investors are those who don’t look for the low risk investment that might yield a more reliable return, because those startups fail too.

(b)Angel investors are those who own shares in the business, not revenue, and not profits.

(c) An angel investor is an affluent individual who provides capital for a business start-up.

(d) Angel investors are often retired entrepreneurs or executives, who may be interested in angel investing for reasons that go beyond pure monetary return.

(e) None of the above

Solutions

S1. Ans. (d)

Sol. Suffice- be enough or adequate.

Serve- be enough for.

Disperse- distribute or spread over a wide area.

Dissipate- (with reference to a feeling or emotion) disappear or cause to disappear.

Squander- waste (something, especially money or time) in a reckless and foolish manner.

Among the given options, the option (d) ‘serve’ is the most appropriate word to fill the blank. Hence, the option (d) is the correct answer.

S2. Ans. (a)

Sol. Among the given options, only option (a) conveys the meaning that supports the given statement in the passage. Option (a) conveys that if you connect words just to create an effect, that is not poetry, it just includes the one factor which is ‘intelligence’ but it is devoid of the other factor which is ‘skill.’

Hence, the option (a) is the correct answer.

S3. Ans. (b)

Sol. The hint for the answer is derived from the paragraph where it is given as “considering something like IQ to be a sufficient index of human mental capacity!” An intelligence quotient (IQ) is a total score derived from several standardized tests designed to assess human intelligence. Option (d) is out of context hence can be omitted easily. Only option (b) has talked about the ‘human intelligence.’

Hence, the option (b) is the correct answer.

S4. Ans. (c)

Sol. The position of (2) (intelligence) and (3) (different) seems correct, but the words ‘activity’ and ‘failures’ seem to be incorrectly placed. Hence, upon interchanging 1-4, we get the sentence, grammatically and contextually correct and meaningful, repectively. The sentence thus formed will be, “One of the major failures here is that of considering intelligence to be something different from and raised above the activity of living.”

Hence, the option (c) is the correct answer.

S5. Ans. (b)

Sol. relegated- assign an inferior rank or position to

The hint for the answer can be derived from the line itself. “This leads to the misconception that intelligence can be ………….. to something else — say, a robot — without becoming something else.”

It explains that there is a misconception that a robot can replace the ‘intelligence’ or ‘intelligence’ can be degraded to a lower position. Among the given options, the word ‘relegated’ gels well with the theme of the paragraph and makes the sentence grammatically and contextually correct and meaningful, respectively. Hence, the option (b) is the correct answer.

S6. Ans. (b)

Sol. Virtues- behaviour showing high moral standards.

fortes- a thing at which someone excels.

Gentry- people of good social position, specifically the class of people next below the nobility in position and birth.

Rage- violent uncontrollable anger.

Among the given options, the option (b) ‘fortes’ is the most appropriate word to fill the blank. Hence, the option (b) is the correct answer.

S7. Ans. (c)

Sol.

(I) We expect individuals to be their own leaders, to take charge of their lives, to assume responsibility for their decisions.

(II) A person who merely coordinates the actions of others or has management skills is not a leader.

(III) I suppose there is little new one can say on this matter.

BCA will be the correct sequence. Hence, the option (c) is the correct answer.

S8. Ans. (b)

Sol. Entails- involve (something) as a necessary or inevitable part or consequence.

Arouse- evoke or awaken (a feeling, emotion, or response).

Sheers- a very fine or diaphanous fabric or article.

Garners- gather or collect (something, especially information or approval)

The given line in the passage conveys that to be a good leader it is necessary to put forth the collective interest first instead of her/his own interest. Hence, the option (b) is the correct answer.

S9. Ans. (d)

Sol. Among the given options, only option (d) gels well with the preceding and the following sentences of (C). The rests seem out-of-context.

Hence, the option (d) is the correct answer.

“Since this intellectual formulation can only be the first step, an estimate of the real quality of a decision is not known until it is implemented; Its deficiencies begin to show up only when put into practice. This requires him to keep his ear to the ground, listen patiently to criticism to judge if his policies are working.”

S10. Ans. (e)

Sol. The given sentence is grammatically correct and contextually meaningful and doesn’t require any changes. Hence, the option (e) ‘no error’ is the correct answer.

S11. Ans. (c)

Sol. Collusion- secret or illegal cooperation or conspiracy in order to deceive others.

Commotion- a state of confused and noisy disturbance.

Concession- a thing that is granted, especially in response to demands.

Digression- a temporary departure from the main subject in speech or writing.

It is evident from the whole passage that author is talking about the idea of reconsideration of angel tax on start-ups. Only option (c) has a meaning which fits best in the given blank as per the context of the passage. Hence, the option (c) is the correct answer.

S12. Ans. (d)

Sol. Norms- something that is usual, typical, or standard.

Among the given options, the option (d) ‘standards’ is the most appropriate word to fill the blank. Hence, the option (d) is the correct answer.

S13. Ans. (d)

Sol.

BAC will be the correct choice as it will make all the three sentectes grammatically and contextually correct.

(i) The tax, which was first introduced in 2012 to curb money-laundering through the sale of shares of private unlisted companies at bloated prices, has caused a lot of anguish among start-up investors in the country.

(ii) For its part, the IT department fears that start-ups may be used as convenient tools to launder illegally acquired money, so a tax on investments beyond a certain threshold is necessary to deter such shady operations.

(iii) The broad-brush tax on all investments means an unnecessary cost is imposed on the wider start-up community simply because of the lack of better means at the government’s disposal to tackle black money.

BAC will be the correct sequence. Hence, the option (d) is the correct answer.

S14. Ans. (e)

Sol. The positions of (2) (benefits), (4) (justifiable) and (1) (unintended) and (3) (intent) seems to be incorrectly placed. Hence, upon interchanging 2-4 and 1-3 we get the sentence which is grammatically and contextually correct and meaningful, respectively. “But while the intent of such an angel tax may be justifiable, the arbitrary nxature of it means the cost of unintended consequences could be larger than the supposed benefits”

Hence, the option (e) is the correct answer.

S15. Ans. (c)

Sol. Based on the information given in the passage, among the given options, only option (c) best describes the term ‘angel investor.’ The line given in the passage, “For its part, the IT department fears that start-ups may be used as convenient tools to launder illegally acquired money, so a tax on investments beyond a certain threshold is necessary to deter such shady operations” gives an idea that angel investors are those who provide capital for a business start-up.

Hence, the option (c) is the correct answer.

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Direction (1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions

Do you know that ‘APSARA’ was the name that Jawaharlal Nehru chose for India’s first nuclear reactor? Or, that he also named the country’s first computer, TIFRAC or Tata Institute of Fundamental Research Automatic Calculator? The APSARA and TIFRAC design teams were working together and interacting regularly. There was an excitement when all the subunits – viz. the arithmetic, memory, control, and display units – operated in synchrony, and the first program could be run on the system. “It was a small machine language program cumulatively adding one number to another; it looped a number of times and stopped after a specified number of cycles. To the design team, the first Indian computer running a ‘stored program’ was as much a milestone as the first Indian reactor sustaining a chain reaction of nuclear fission! The pilot model of the computer, completed in 1956, was a parallel, asynchronous, fixed point, and single address machine with a word length of 12 bits and a two-dimensional ferrite core memory of 256 words, the essay by S. Ramani informs. “Input and output were accomplished via paper tape and teletype. The total power consumption of this machine was about 10 kw.”

An important component of the TIFRAC was an ‘intangible’ item named its assembler, designed and implemented by R. Narasimhan and Kamalakar S. Kane, recounts S. Ramani in his essay. It was almost certainly the first item of system software to be implemented in India, he notes. A snatch of information of use to novices is that, as against an application program which has specific uses, system software is an essential part of a computer system that is necessary to implement the very complex functionality that computer systems need to provide. As Ramani elaborates, the TIFR computer group had recognized in 1959-60 the importance of software. “This was a time when the term ‘computer software’ meant nothing to anyone outside a small community of specialists in the world.” Another essay, authored by S. R. Vijayakar and Y. S. Mayya , traces the birth of TDC12, ‘the first Indian-built electronic digital computer’ commissioned by Vikram Sarabhai at Bhabha Atomic Research Centre on January 21, 1969.TDC stood for Trombay Digital Computer series of ECIL (Electronics Corporation of India Ltd), and the computer was the result of the work of “a small band of young engineers and scientists, fresh from the colleges, without any previous knowledge of computers or guidance from people with hands-on experience in the field… Their only inputs were the trust and confidence that their superiors reposed in them.

A predecessor to TDC12 was EAC (Electronic Analogue Computer) machine in 1964. About ten of these computers were sold to various engineering colleges in the country! “One of the very interesting applications for which this computer was put to use was the design of the flyover bridge at Kemps Corner, Mumbai, in association with Roorkee and Osmania universities. The system was also employed for the simulation of control systems of CIRUS reactor.”

A differently-titled essay is of Bud Mishra titled,‘SarveSantuNiramaya’ (meaning, ‘May all be disease-free’). He is of the view that the emerging fields of computational systems biology and population genomics analysis could be the next important high-technology areas for India to nurture. India’s ambition, he says, should be to continue developing technologies with the goal of establishing herself as a global superpower and a world leader, not necessarily in a military sense or even in an economic sense, but as an example representing the ambitions of all humanity and having its fount embedded in knowledge, science, and technology – all aimed to end human suffering. The investment in biotechnology, nanotechnology, robotics, etc. would be the necessary steps in moving India in that direction, explains Mishra.

Q1.Which of the following statements is true about the 1956’s pilot model of the computer?

(a)A parallel, synchronous, fixed point, and single address machine with a word length of 12 bits and a two-dimensional ferrite core memory of 256 words.

(b)A parallel, asynchronous, fixed point, and single address machine with a word length of 32 bits and a two-dimensional ferrite core memory of 256 words.

(c)A parallel, asynchronous, fixed point, and single address machine with a word length of 32 bits and a single-dimensional ferrite core memory of 256 words.

(d)A parallel, asynchronous, fixed point,and single address machine with a word length of 12 bits and a two-dimensional ferrite core memory of 256 words.

(e) None of these

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Q2.How is system software useful for a computer system according to the context of the passage?

(a) Provides default medium for video distribution.

(b) Simulation of control systems.

(c)It implements the very complex functionality that computer systems need to provide.

(d) Acts as a memory medium within a device.

(e) Makes the bus speeds higher better.

Q3.In reference to the writings by some of the authors, which is the first Indian built electronic digital computer?

(a)EAC

(b)TIFRAC

(c)TDC12

(d)APSARA

(e)CIRUS

Q4.The formation of TDC12 was the outcome of

(a)A person skilled in the technique of an art or craft.

(b)An IT Specialist, computer professional, or an IT professional especially a person who has proven extensive knowledge in the area of computing.

(c) Experienced engineers and scientists.

(d) A small band of young fresh college engineers and scientists without any previous knowledge of computers.

(e) An expert in the practical application of a science.

Q5. Apart from the designing of Flyover Bridge at Kemps Corner, what was the other important application of EAC?

(a) Displaying the time, the zodiac, and the orbits of the sun and moon.

(b) Simulation of control systems of CIRUS reactor.

(c) Integrating a voltage with respect to time.

(d) Carrying bits of information in groups by means of spatial arrangement of signals.

(e) All of these.

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Q6.What are thenext important high-technology areas mentioned in the passage where India could nurture?

(a) Computer software development to next level.

(b) Computational systems biology.

(c) Population genomics analysis

(d) Both (a) and (b)

(e) Both (b) and (c)

Directions (7-8):Find out the word from the given options which is similar in meaning to the word given in bold in the passage.

Q7.Cumulatively

(a)Segregated

(b)Collectively

(c)Distinctly

(d)Isolated

(e)Disassociated

Q8.Accomplished

(a)Incapable

(b)Inept

(c)Attained

(d)Unorganized

(e)Barbaric

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Directions (9-10):Find out the word from the given options which is opposite in meaning to the word given in bold in the passage.

Q9.Nurture

(a)Foster

(b)Deprive

(c)Nourish

(d)Feed

(e)Develop

Q10.Snatch

(a)Grab

(b)Seize

(c)Immersed

(d)Release

(e)Rooted

Directions (11-15): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers (a), (b), (c) ,(d) and (e). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningfully complete.

Q11. Leisure musT be spent carefully and __________  only, otherwise the devil will take the ________ of you.

(a) positively, care

(b) constructively, better

(c) pro-actively, though

(d) objectively, energy

(e) purposefully, measure

Q12. Nothing is impossible in the world of politics. States which were _________ foes and had their deadly missiles pointed at each other find themselves ________ in military alliances.

(a) implacable, partners

(b) intense, joining

(c) deadly, approaching

(d) known, soliciting

(e) enviable, grouping

Q13. Inferring attitudes from expressed opinion has many_______.  People may______ their attitude and express socially acceptable opinions.

(a) limitations, conceal

(b) advantages, show

(c) drawbacks, support

(d) benefits, avoid

(e) reasons, acknowledge

Q14. We should move towards a system where the banks can_______ capital in the market with  _______ safeguard so that they continue to be public sector banks.

(a) improve, proper

(b) strengthen, durable

(c) raise, adequate

(d) stimulate, effective

(e) provide, delicate

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Q15.

Governments in India seem to delight in arbitrary censorship under the ________ of _________ the public.

(a) garb, upholding

(b)pretext, protecting

(c) context, strengthening

(d) command, authorising

(e) guise, winning

solutions

S1.Ans. (d)

Sol. Refer to paragraph 1 which mentions about the first Indian computer running a stored program and thus mentions about the pilot model of the computer completed in 1956 which was “a parallel, asynchronous, fixed point, and single address machine with a word length of 12 bits and a two-dimensional ferrite core memory of 256 words”.

S2. Ans. (c)

Sol. Option (c) is the most appropriate choice. The answer can be deduced from the second paragraph of the passage where it is given that an application program has specific uses but against it system software is an essential part of a computer system that is necessary to implement the very complex functionality that computer systems need to provide.

S3. Ans. (c)

Sol. The answer can be traced from the second paragraph of the passage itself where it is given “Another essay, authored by S. R. Vijayakar and Y. S. Mayya , traces the birth of TDC12, ‘the first Indian-built electronic digital computer’ commissioned by Vikram Sarabhai at Bhabha Atomic Research Centre on January 21, 1969.”

S4. Ans. (d)

Sol. Refer to some of the last lines of the second paragraph where it is mentioned that TDC stood for Trombay Digital Computer series of ECIL (Electronics Corporation of India Ltd), and the computer was the result of the work of “a small band of young engineers and scientists, fresh from the colleges, without any previous knowledge of computers or guidance from people with hands-on experience in the field. Their only inputs were the trust and confidence that their superiors reposed in them.

S5. Ans.(b)

Sol. Option (b) is the most suitable choice as it is mentioned in the passage. We can refer to paragraph 3 for deducing our answer as the answer is explicitly given. So the text can be quoted directly as, “The system was employed for the simulation of control systems of CIRUS reactor.”

S6. Ans. (e)

Sol. Option (e) is the most appropriate answer. The answer can be inferred from the last paragraph of the passage where it is given that Bud Mishra is of the view that the emerging fields of computational systems biology and population genomics analysis could be the next important high-technology areas for India to nurture.\

S7. Ans.(b)

Sol. Cumulatively means in a way that increases in quantity, degree, or force by successive additions.

Collectively means taken as a whole; in combination.

Distinctly means taken as a whole; in combination.

Isolated means far away from other places, buildings, or people; remote.

Segregated means set apart from the rest or from each other; isolate or divide.

Disassociated means disconnected.

S8. Ans.(c)

Sol. Accomplished means achieve or complete successfully

Attained-succeed in achieving (something that one has worked for)

Inept means having or showing no skill; clumsy.

Barbaric means savagely cruel or uncivilized and uncultured.

Thus option (c) is the answer.

S9. Ans. (b)

Sol. Option (b) is the most suitable choice. Nurture means care for and protect (someone or something) while they are growing.

Deprive means prevent (a person or place) from having or using something.

Hence it is the only opposite of the given word.

Foster means encourage the development of (something, especially something desirable.

Nourish means provide with the food or other substances necessary for growth, health, and good condition.

S10. Ans.(d)

Sol. Option (d) is the most apt choice.

Snatch-quickly seize (something) in a rude or eager way

Immersed means involve oneself deeply in a particular activity.

Rooted means establish deeply and firmly.

Option (a)and (b) are the synonyms of the given word.

S11.Ans.(b)

Sol.

 ‘constructively, better’ fits the sentence most appropriately where ‘constructively’ means promoting further development or advancement.

S12.Ans.(a)

Sol.

 ‘implacable, partners’fits the sentence most appropriately where ‘implacable’ means unable to be appeased.

S13.Ans.(a)   

Sol.

‘limitations, conceal’ fits the sentence appropriately where ‘conceal’ means prevent (something) from being known.

S14.Ans.(c)

Sol.

 ‘raise, adequate’ fits the sentence appropriately  where adequate means satisfactory or acceptable in quality or quantity.

S15.Ans.(b)

Sol.

 ‘pretext, protecting’ fits the sentence appropriately as ‘pretext’ means a reason given in justification of a course of action that is not the real reason.

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Directions (1-5): Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which one sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

Q1.  It wouldn’t be an exaggeration to say that air pollution is one of the biggest public concerns in India today. Its implications are many but just two will suffice here. A report of the Lancet Commission on pollution and health states that around 19 lakh people die prematurely every year from diseases caused by outdoor and indoor air pollution. A study by the Indian Journal of Pediatrics shows that the lungs of children who grow up in polluted environments like Delhi are 10% smaller compared to the lungs of children who grow up in the U.S. This is nothing short of a public health emergency. _______________________________

(a)What is needed, therefore, is a comprehensive policy to curb pollution.

(b)Emissions can be curbed only if people are persuaded to move away from fossil fuels and adopt greener forms of energy.

(c)A part of the carbon revenue thus generated can be used for a systemic overhaul of the energy mix, which, to a large extent, would address the pressing problem of environmental degradation.

(d)The level of carbon tax required for this policy to come into effect is ₹2,818 per metric tonne of CO2.

(e)The highest rise in price will be in fuel and energy since the carbon content is the highest in this category.

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Q2.  Something in us constantly urges us to seek. This seeking, according to sages, is a reflection of our need for lasting peace and happiness. Ramana Maharshi termed this seeking as a natural yearning within our hearts to be established in a state of permanent peace. He likened this to the natural process whereby birds return to their nests after their travels. However, because of the latent impressions our minds carry over many years and through force of habit, we seek this peace by pursuing various external efforts. ____________________________

(a)Bhagvan Ramana, therefore, advocated turning the mind inwards, by investigating and seeking the source of everything.

(b)Bhagvan Ramana said that the concept of doership is akin to a traveller in a train carrying the suitcase on his head with the notion that this would lessen the burden on the train.

(c)While admitting the relevance of all other techniques, Ramana was uncompromising on the need to ultimately search within so as to dissolve the sense of ego or individual doer ship.

(d)All these efforts prove transient and short as extroversion of the mind only propels a never-ending chain of further pursuits.

(e)Ramakrishna Paramahansa taught the same truth through bhakti, unconditional love and surrender to the Supreme.

Q3. Young and aspirational, the millennial generation that makes up about 40% of India’s population has long been regarded as the saviour and driver of future economic growth. Yet, the gap between the productive labour force and the employment and entrepreneurial opportunities available to them continues to widen. The fourth Industrial Revolution has already made its mark on certain sectors. ________________________.

(a) Fulfilling the great expectations set for the MSDE seems unlikely unless certain changes are made.
(b) To be fair, policymakers recognize the problem and have taken steps to combat it.
(c) As technology continues to surge forward in leaps and bounds, both blue- and white-collar jobs will become increasingly sparse.
(d) Much of India’s workforce is already hampered with outdated and irrelevant skills.
(e) The economic turmoil that could be brought on by further large-scale disruption should be a cause of concern.

Q4. In the past few years, the slowdown in exports could be attributed at least in part to tepid global growth and falling trade intensity. However, this year, the global economy has seen a strong cyclical upturn across geographies and sectors, driven by stronger growth in investment, trade and industrial production. As per S&P Global estimates, global GDP is expected to reverse a two-year slowdown and grow 3.6% in 2017, higher than the 3.1% logged in 2016. __________________________________. In particular, the US and the euro area—India’s largest export destinations—are expected to grow by 70 basis points (bps) and 30 bps higher than in 2016, at 2.2% and 2.3%, respectively.

(a) The impact shows in the exports of labour-intensive sectors, which mainly comprise SMEs.
(b) The pickup is expected to be broad-based, across both advanced and emerging market economies.
(c) The fastest growth in exports was achieved when the rupee was strengthening against the dollar.
(d) Clearly, India has not been able to take advantage of the improving global environment, especially compared with its Asian peers.
(e) Revival in global investment, which has a high import content, further helped boost trade.

Q5. Land and housing rights have been a contentious topic in Kyrgyzstan since the country achieved independence following the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991. Although under Kyrgyz law the state is supposed to provide a free plot of land to every citizen, as Eurasianet notes, “In reality, a land-allocation process thick with corruption and bureaucratic obstacles awaits anyone attempting to claim his share.” As a result, while elites and those with access to them have acquired more than their fair share of land for housing and construction projects, the majority of the population has been left to fend for themselves, vulnerable to elite power plays and manipulation. _______________________________________.

(a) In this context, land rights and housing issues have long been at the center of political controversy, particularly at times of upheaval
(b) This is especially true in and around Bishkek, where prime land is very attractive and expensive due to plot scarcity and services availability.

(c) In exchange for their support at crunch time for the then newly installed interim government, they expected to be rewarded with the same land for housing.
(d) To this day, however, it has been impossible to establish exactly how many people participated in this scheme and the total sum that was collected.
(e) Land rights and housing issues have long been at the center of political controversy, particularly at times of upheaval.

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Directions (6-10): In the following paragraph, there is a set of four highlighted words against each number indicated in bold in the beginning of the sentences. One of the given words in each set may or may not fit into the statement. Choose the word which is not suitable in the context of the paragraph. If all the four words are correct and feasible, choose (e) i.e. “No error” as your answer.

(6) India’s net direct tax collections reportedly grew by 18.2% in April-December 2017 from a year ago, with advance tax payments in December adding substantially to the kitty. This is welcoming. (7) But the improvement will be sufferable only if the government makes productive use of the audit trails created by the goods and services tax — that allows manufacturers to claim credit for the taxes paid on inputs across the production and income chain — to generate a unified base of tax potential that can be tapped. (8) A mine of information is already available, post the GST rollout. Tax authorities must diligently follow the audit trails, supplements them with big-data analytics.

The gross value added in an economy is equal to gross profits (including depreciation) plus wages and salaries. (9) This hold true at the enterprise level as well. Effectively, the tax base is taxed once with a comprehensive GST. The need is to track how much a company has paid and how much is the actual value addition that has been made. (10) The data must be correlated with what the company claims as its expenses that include electricity bill and payouts to the Employees’ Provident Fund. This would enable tax authorities to check whether a company has declared its income correctly, and assess its tax liability.

Q6. (a) grew
(b) from
(c) substantially
(d) welcoming
(e) No error.

Q7. (a) sufferable
(b) allows
(c) generate
(d) tapped
(e) No error.

Q8.

(a) already
(b) diligently
(c) supplements
(d) equal
(e) No error

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Q9. (a) hold
(b) effectively
(c) track
(d) made
(e) No error

Q10. (a) correlated
(b) expenses
(c) declared
(d) liability
(e) No error

Directions (11-13): In the questions given below a sentence is given with two blanks which are then followed by words which may or may not fill the given sentence. Choose the correct combination of words that can fill the given blanks and make it grammatically and contextually correct.

Q11. One cannot help noticing that if Hinduism was always ________________ and tolerant, then the recent controversy over Rahul Gandhi’s religious beliefs would not have occurred. One also cannot help noticing that if Islam was __________________ solely with peace, groups of Muslims would not be shooting at each other in almost every third Muslim country in the world.

(I)embraced

(II)inclusive

(III)defined

(IV)correspondent

(V)equated

(a)I-IV

(b)I-III

(c)II- IV

(d)II-V

(e)No combination fits

Q12. The very large number of laws and their ________________ interpretations leave the common man at a loss. Adding to the confusion is a police force that enforces law according to its own understanding or on instructions of the political executive, but _________________ on sound judicial principles.

(I)varied

(II)seldom

(III)often

(IV)disparate

(V)extended

(a)V-III

(b)IV-V

(c)I-II

(d)I-IV

(e)No combination fits

Q13. Given the extraordinary adoption of Aadhaar as a government programme, it is tempting to think of its success as a ______________ to the Indian state’s uniquely coercive powers that it has _______________ and fine-tuned over the past decade thanks to increasing interlinkages between various aspects of our daily lives — from banking to booking a tatkal ticket.

(I)tribute

(II)accrued

(III)consequence

(IV)ensued

(V)testament

(a)III-IV

(b)V-II

(c)I-III

(d)III-II

(e)No combination fits

Directions (14-15): In each of the following sentence there are three blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five options and each option consists of three words which can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence to make the sentence grammatically correct.

Q14. With inflation-targeting as its main _______ — the consensus position that was articulated when the RBI Act was amended in May 2016 was that “price stability is a _________ precondition to sustainable growth” — the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) has opted yet again to keep interest rates ___________.

(a) confirmation, primary, modified
(b) uphold, assured, unrelieved
(c) mandate, necessary, unchanged
(d) support, radical, stabile

(e) consent, inherent, endured

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Q15.  Ultimately, though, the central bank has once again ________ a word of circumspection to fiscal authorities: taken together, the farm loan waivers ________ by some States, the partial reduction of excise duty and VAT on petroleum products and the GST rate cuts could ________ in fiscal slippage with accompanying consequences for price stability.

(a) inflicted, provided, neglect
(b) proffered, implemented, result
(c) imposed, generated, occur
(d) expected, assembled, transpire
(e) intended, managed, appear

SOLUTIONS

S1. Ans. (a)

Sol. Option (a) is the correct choice. Here, the author has already discussed the problem of the air pollution and supported it with the facts produced by Lancet Commission and a study by Indian Journal of Pediatrics. He stated air pollution to be an emergency in the previous statement thus the next statement to complete this paragraph should be the action required to curb the problem of pollution.

S2. Ans. (d)

Sol. Option (d) is the correct choice. Here, the author has just described about the external efforts taken by humans for the peace of their minds. Thus, the next statement to complete the paragraph should be about the results of these efforts undertaken by the individuals. This is aptly described in option (d).

S3. Ans. (e)

Sol. In this paragraph, future economic growth has been discussed, that depends on the young generation. The sentences before the blank talks about the wide gap between productive labour force and the employment and entrepreneurial opportunities available. The success of the fourth Industrial Revolution has also been discussed. Hence the blank must be filled the sentence related to the economic condition. Going through all the sentences, we can infer that sentence (e) goes correctly with the paragraph that talks about the large-scale disruption causing economic turmoil. Hence sentence (e) is the correct choice.

S4. Ans. (b)

Sol. Here the theme of the paragraph revolves around the global economy depending upon the investment, trade and industrial production. The sentences before the blank is about the statistics of GDP growth in 2017 from 2016 whereas the sentences after the blank talks about the expected growth of export from previous year. Hence the blank must be filled by the sentence related to this economic growth. After reading all the sentences, we find that sentence (b) goes in agreement with the passage talking about the pick up of GDP, as discussed in its above sentence, which is expected to be broad based across both advanced and emerging market. Hence option (b) is the correct choice.

 S5. Ans. (b)

Sol. The paragraph talks about the unavailability of land to the Kyrgystan’s citizens that is supposed to provide free to every citizen under Kyrgyz law. Hence the blank must be filled by the sentence related to this theme. Going through all the sentences, we can conclude that sentence (b) goes in harmony with the paragraph talking about the attractive and expensive land because of  plot scarcity in Bishkek. Hence option (b) is the correct choice.

S6. Ans. (d)

Sol. ‘welcome’ will be the correct use instead of ‘welcoming’. The incident has already happened in the past, as indicated by the word ‘grew’.

 S7. Ans. (a)

Sol.sufferable’ is wrong here. Some positive word must come here as the sentence is talking about consequence of making productive use of audit trails created by the goods and services tax.

sustainable’ will be the correct word which means able to be maintained at a certain rate or level.

S8. Ans. (c)

Sol.supplementing’ will be the correct use instead of ‘supplements’ as supplementing is a participle phrase.  The word “supplementing” means “which supplements”.

S9. Ans. (a)

Sol. ‘holds’ is the correct use instead of ‘hold’ as the subject of the sentence ‘this’ is singular.

 S10. Ans. (e)

Sol. All the four words are correctly used and are in the context of the paragraph

S11. Ans. (d)

Sol. The combination of II-V i.e. “inclusive, equated” fits into the blanks respectively.  Other combinations are unfit to the given blanks.

Inclusive means including all the services or items normally expected or required.

Equated means considered (one thing) to be the same as or equivalent to another.

Correspondent means corresponding.

S12. Ans. (c)

Sol. The combination of I-II i.e. “varied, seldom” fits into the blanks respectively and thus adds meaning to the sentence contextually. Other combinations are unfit to the given blanks.

Varied means incorporating a number of different types or elements; showing variation or variety.

Seldom means not often; rarely.

Often means frequently; many times.

Disparate means essentially different in kind; not able to be compared.

Extended means made larger; enlarged.

S13. Ans. (b)

Sol. The combination of V-II i.e. “testament, accrued” fits into the blanks respectively. They provide an appropriate meaning to the sentence. Other combinations are unfit to the given blanks.

Testament means something that serves as a sign or evidence of a specified fact, event, or quality.

Accrued means accumulated or received (payments or benefits) over time.

Tribute means an act, statement, or gift that is intended to show gratitude, respect, or admiration.

Ensued means happened or occurred afterwards or as a result.

S14. Ans. (c)

Sol. ‘mandate, necessary, unchanged’ is the correct set of words making the sentence meaningful.

S15. Ans. (b)

Sol. ‘proffered, implemented, result’ is the correct set of words making the sentence meaningful.

Proffered means hold out or put forward (something) to someone for acceptance.

Inflicted means cause (something unpleasant or painful) to be suffered by someone or something.

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Direction (1-10): Given below is a paragraph consisting of blanks against each number. Identify the correct option among the five alternative pairs that perfectly fits into the given blank against the respective number to make the paragraph contextually meaningful and grammatically correct.

She was(1)__________ in the small village of Kakati in Belgaum, Karnataka in 1778. From a very young age she received training in sword fighting, archery and horse riding and got private lessons at home. Once King Mallasarja of Kittur was moving(2)___________trying to find support from neighbouring kingdoms to fight Tipu Sultan and approached Dhulappa Desai. He then saw Chennamma and was(3)____________ to her confidence and bravery.Though he was already(4)__________and had a son ShivalingaRudraSarja, he took Chenamma as his second wife. They had a son who died at a young age. King Mallasarja also passed away. It is said that East India company’s collector and political agent Thackeray wished to(5)___________Kittur to expand the British Empire. Rani Chennama now queen of kittur decided to takechargeand rallied together her trusted men to fight against the British. As a(6)_____________of this war British officers including Thackeray were killed. The remaining officials and soldiers were(7)________________and she ensured that they were treated with courtesy and kindness. The British Empire was enraged at the humiliation of defeat at the hands of a small ruler and sent bigger armies to Kittur to capture it. A fierce battle was fought but this time due to a number of(8)___________in her camp she lost the battle and was captured by the British and their treasury looted. It is said that such was her indomitable courage and fearlessness that she tried to (9)__________twice from the Kittur fort but was recaptured both times and then put in solitary confinement for life. She spent her days performing pooja and reading the holy texts till her death.In the year 1829 she died in confinement with the(10)_________ of a free Kittur in her heart and mind. Her burial place or Samadhi is at Bailhongaltaluka surrounded by a small park.

Q1.

(a)Born

(b)Bent

(c)Folded

(d)Daunted

(e)Frightened

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Q2.

(a)Arouse

(b)Around

(c)Argue

(d)Affluent

(e)Artificial

Q3.

(a)Exchanged

(b)Afforested

(c)Attracted

(d)Mounted

(e)Balanced

Q4.

(a)Restored

(b)Rejected

(c)Nurtured

(d)Married

(e)Divorced

Q5.

(a)Crowned

(b)Linked

(c)Crowd

(d)Classify

(e)Capture

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Q6.

(a)Commotion

(b)Abrasion

(c)Propulsion

(d)Conclusion

(e)Emulsion

Q7.

(a)Sanctioned

(b)Adjourned

(c)Imprisoned

(d)Burdened

(e)Rationed

Q8.

(a)Followers

(b)Traitors

(c)Practitioners

(d)Survivors

(e)Instructors

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Q9.

(a)Escape

(b)Recap

(c)Mishap

(d)Rehab

(e)Instigate

Q10.

(a)Supreme

(b)Extreme

(c)Scheme

(d)Realm

(e)Dream

Directions (11-15): In the following questions, a sentence is divided into five parts with one part of each sentence is highlighted in bold suggesting the grammatically correct part of the sentence. Out of the four other parts, choose the part of the sentence which contains grammatical or contextual error in it. If the given sentence is both grammatically correct and contextually meaningful, choose option (e) i.e., “No error” as your answer.

Q11. Public sector banks (A)/ accounts (B)/for about 85% of the cumulative amount involved(C)/ in frauds till March 31, 2018,(D)/ while private banks accounted for a little over 10%(E).

(a) accounts

(b) for about 85% of the cumulative amount involved

(c) in frauds till March 31, 2018,

(d) while private banks accounted for a little over 10%

(e) no error

Q12.If the arrest of five prominent(A)/ activists by the Pune police in a coordinated operation(B)/ across four States has result in(C)/ such indignation, it is because of the widespread suspicion(D)/ that this is a part of an orchestrated crackdown on political dissent(E).

(a) If the arrest of five prominent

(b) across four States has result in

(c) such indignation, it is because of the widespread suspicion

(d) that this is a part of an orchestrated crackdown on political dissent

(e) no error

Q13. One reason(A)/ for the failure is that prosecuting agencies(B)/ typically believe in guilt by association(C)/ they confuse empathy with incitement(D)/ and compassion with collaboration(E).

(a) One reason

(b) typically believe in guilt by association

(c) they confuse empathy with incitement

(d) and compassion with collaboration

(e) no erroR

Q14. Two recent developments hold out hope(A)/, One was the indictment of a Bill in Parliament to remove leprosy as a ground for legal separation from one’s spouse(B)/, and the other was the Supreme Court asking the Centre(C)/whether it would bring in a positive law conferring rights and benefits on persons(D)/ with leprosy and rules that perpetuated the stigma associated with it. (E)

(a) Two recent developments hold out hope

(b) One was the indictment of a Bill in Parliament to remove leprosy as a ground for legal separation from one’s spouse

(c) and the other was the Supreme Court asking the Centre

(d) with leprosy and rules that perpetuated the stigma associated with it

(e) no error

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Q15.While governments may have(A)/ to handle the legislative part, society has an even larger role(B)/ to play. It is possible to end(C)/ discrimination through law, but stigma tend to survive reform and(D)/ may require more than legal efforts to eliminate(E).

(a) While governments may have

(b) to play. It is possible to end

(c) discrimination through law, but stigma tend to survive reform and

(d) may require more than legal efforts to eliminate

(e) no error

Solutions

S1. Ans. (a)

Sol. Option (a) is the correct answer choice. As the paragraph is telling about the story of the Rani Chennamma a great warrior from the war of independence. As the very first line of the paragraph describes her birth place and the year so ‘born’ would be the best choice to fill the blank.

S2. Ans. (b)

Sol.Option (b) is the correct answer choice. As the 3rd line of the paragraph states thatKingMallasarja of Kittur was looking for help from his neighboring kingdoms to fight Tipu Sultan, and thus he was moving around for getting help.

S3. Ans. (c)

Sol. Option (c) is the correct answer choice. As the next line states that “he took Chenamma as his second wife” so the correct option to fill the blank (3) should be ‘attracted’.

S4. Ans. (d)

Sol. Option (d) is the correct answer choice. As the line itself suggests that the King Mallasarja of Kittur already had a son so the correct option to fill the blank (4) should be ‘married’.

S5. Ans. (e)

Sol.Option (e) is the correct answer choice. As the line itself suggests that Thackeray the East India Thackeray Company’s collector and political agent wanted to expand the British Empire so the correct word to fill the blank (5) should be ‘capture’.

S6. Ans. (d)

Sol.Option (d) is the correct answer choice. As the line, “As a (6)_____________of this war British officers including Thackeray were killed” suggests the idea of the outcome of war so the best answer choice to fill the blank (6) should be ‘conclusion’.

S7. Ans. (c)

Sol. Option (c) is the correct answer choice. The line “…..including Thackeray were killed ………The remaining officials and soldiers were (7) ________________and she ensured that they were treated with courtesy and kindness.” suggests that the queen had won the war and Thackeray got killed and the remaining officials were ‘imprisoned’. Therefore option (c) is the correct answer choice.

S8. Ans. (b)

Sol. Option (b) is the correct answer choice. The line, “ A fierce battle was fought but this time due to a number of (8)___________in her camp she lost the battle and was captured by the British and their treasury looted” suggests that while the war took placed second time the queen lost the battle and that too just because of some renegades inside her camp. So the ‘traitors’ is the correct answer choice to fill the blank (8).

S9. Ans. (a)

Sol.Option (a) is the correct answer choice. As the previous line, “….she lost the battle and was captured by the British and their treasury looted…..” suggests that the queen had lost the war and she was captured therefore ‘escape’ is the correct word to fill the blank (9).

S10. Ans. (e)

Sol.Option (e) is the correct answer choice. As the line, “In the year 1829 she died in confinement with the (10) _________ of a free Kittur in her heart and mind.” itself suggests that while dying the queen had a wish/dream in her heart, therefore the best answer choice to fill the blank (10) should be ‘dream”.

S11. Ans. (a)

Sol. The error lies in the second part i.e., part (B) of the sentence. Here in the sentence a comparison is done between the PSBs and private banks on the basis of cumulative amount involved in fraud and that too till some past time, so the tense used here should be past instead of present indefinite, the word accounts should be replaced by accounted. Also, it creates an error of subject-verb agreement, since the noun [Public sector banks] associated to the verb (accounts) is in its plural form, therefore, the verb should also be in its plural verb [account]. The option (a) should be the correct answer choice.

S12. Ans. (b)

Sol. The error lies in the third part i.e., part (C) of the sentence. Result should be replaced by resulted as here the present perfect tense has been used. The option (b) should be the correct answer choice.

S13. Ans. (e)

Sol. The given sentence is grammatically correct and contextually meaningful and hence, does not require any corrections. Therefore, option (e) is the most suitable answer choice.

S14. Ans. (b)

Sol. The error lies in the second part i.e., part (B) of the sentence. The word ‘indictment’ should be replaced by ‘introduction’, as the word indictment means a ‘formal charge or accusation of a serious crime’ which doesn’t fit in the given context. Introduction of a bill in parliament fits well in the context of given sentence. Therefore, option (b) is the most suitable answer choice.

S15. Ans. (c)

Sol. The error lies in the fourth part i.e., part (D) of the sentence. In it use of ‘tend’ is incorrect instead it should be ‘tends’ because the subject in the part is ‘stigma’ which being singular will require singular verb as per the subject verb agreement. Hence, the correct answer choice would be option (c)

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Directions (1-5): In each of the following questions, various sentences are given, and you have to choose the one which has some or any grammatical error in it. In the questions where option (e) is all are correct, and all the sentences are grammatically correct choose option (e) as the correct choice.

Q1. (a) Immediately after boarding the bus Mahesh asked the conductor that if he knew where the museum was.

(b) Then I knelt down and opened my heart to her and poured out all the affection that was suffocating me.
(c) She was decidedly pretty, but it is surprising, monsieur, how much prettier women seem to us when the day is fine at the beginning of the spring.
(d) One morning on waking I saw from my window the blue sky glowing in the sun above the neighbouring houses.
(e) My neighbour raised her eyes again, and this time, as I was still looking at her, she smiled decidedly.

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Q2. (a) No longer able to bear with her anguish she surrendered her life to the ocean.
(b) She experienced the summer grass beneath her feet and wore shoes that carried her over rocky terrain.
(c) Since then many a seafarer has told stories of his encounters with the mermaid.
(d) The success of our efforts depend upon the number of people who actually use the new methods.
(e) She lost her love to as much greed as any man could acquire, greed for luxury , greed for temporary pleasure and greed through self absorbed advancement.

Q3. (a) By the Time he reaches his ship, time has crept ten fold and he soon finds himself a crippled old man, unable to board his ship and escape.
(b) For Time is a treasure we rarely give credit to.
(c) Hardly had he threw the ball when it fell on the ground.
(d) Love no longer had value to him, her time meant little and her heart was no longer enough to offer him happiness.
(e) And the journey from the cavern back to his ship would prove to be futile.

Q4. (a) We can earn our gold and silver, we can lose it all and earn it back.
(b) Shyam is working in our organization for the last few years in the publication department.
(c) In a state of anguish she travelled alone across miles of ocean until she reached the Island of Alchemy.
(d) The morning starts with a bang or one bang after another, a series, a chorus – the same sound that lulled me to sleep the night before.
(e) A vital strong man would soon find the treasure he carries become a little harder to hold, and each step he makes him age.

Q5. (a) They talked for a while and then they will continue to play the game till tomorrow morning.
(b) In any case, it would take me very little persuasion to accept a Chungwah though I often refuse others, and perhaps make secret enemies.
(c) Anyway, I walk out and out the compound that houses the teachers and oficials’ residences, looking for a place to get some chow.
(d) I walk down the four flights of the hotel building where I and others of my ilk are housed.
(e) I sit and spend the morning thus, making friends and losing some and finally decide lunch can wait no longer.

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Directions (6-10): In each question, you have been given a small paragraph with three blanks followed by six words out of which three could fill the blanks. Identify which of the given options would correctly mention the pattern of the options which would be filling the blanks.

Q6. Forty years ago, to the week since Deng Xiaoping normalised ties with Japan by travelling to Tokyo and signing a treaty of peace and friendship, Xi Jinping is _______________the Japanese prime minister in Beijing. On October 26th China’s president will _______________Shinzo Abe to a fine dinner, following a lavish reception in Mr Abe’s honour the day before at the Great Hall of the People. The trip will yield a _______________of agreements to co-operate economically across Asia. And Mr Abe may take delivery of two adorable panda cubs.

(i) feting

(ii) treat

(iii) flurry

(iv) fathoming

(v)throes

(vi) supersede

(a) (ii), (iv) and (v)

(b) (vi), (ii) and (vi)

(c) (v), (iv), (iii)

(d) (ii), (iv) and (i)

(e) None of these

Q7. When it comes to basic principles of free speech and freedom of belief, do the nations of Europe form a _______________bloc, determined to apply those principles at home and advocate them round the world? A whole _______________of institutions, from the 28-nation European Union to the 47-nation Council of Europe (and its most powerful arm, the European Court of Human Rights) has been built on that assumption. Individually and collectively, Europe’s democracies are supposed to stand for _______________freedoms.

(i) alchemy

(ii) erudition

(iii) aptitude

(iv) cogent

(v) advocate

(vi) raft

(a) (ii), (iv) and (vi)

(b) (iii), (i) and (iv)

(c) (iv), (vi) and (ii)

(d) (i), (ii) and (v)

(e) None of these

Q8. There is nothing _______________about the fact that America will go to the polls next month with mass murder hanging over it. It is a first-world country with a third-world gun-death rate. Nor is it _______________that the killing of 11 people in a synagogue in Pittsburgh on October 27th was instantly politicised. One party to America’s culture wars, the Republicans, stands for the loose guns laws that are the _______________explanation for so much bloodshed. Democrats stand for tightening them. Yet the presidency of Donald Trump has deepened America’s crisis of violence.

(i) prodigious

(ii) tactile

(iii) unwonted

(iv) bestial

(v) conspicuous

(vi) temporal

(a) (i), (iii) and (v)

(b) (ii), (iv) and (vi)

(c) (iv), (vi) and (i)

(d) (i), (iii) and (vi)

(e) None of these

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Q9. A Year ago, the idea that JairBolsonaro, a far-right former army captain with an unimpressive career as a congressman, might become Brazil’s president seemed _______________. Since the first round of Brazil’s national election on October 7th the main question has not been whether he will win but how he will govern. On October 28th he beat Fernando Haddad, of the left-wing Workers’ Party (PT), with 55% of the vote. For the first time since the end of its military dictatorship in 185, Brazil has elected a president whose views _______________those of the generals more than those of the democratically elected presidents who _______________them.

(i) supplanted

(ii) favour

(iii)swelter

(iv) outlandish

(v) baffled

(vi) secular

(a) (iii), (vi) and (v)

(b) (iv), (ii) and (i)

(c) (iv), (vi) and (v)

(d) (iii), (ii) and (v)

(e) None of these

Q10. “The time has come to open a new chapter,” Angela Merkel said on October 29th, _______________ reports that she would not run again as party leader. She will remain Germany’s chancellor for now but said this will be her last term—saying _______________for the first time what had long been _______________. That means she will step down as chancellor in 2021 at the latest, and probably a bit earlier in order to let a successor bed in.

(i) publicly

(ii)  beguiling

(iii) arcane

(iv) suspected

(v) relentlessly

(vi) intuiting

(a) (ii), (v), (iii)

(b) (ii), (i), (iv)

(c) (vi), (v), (iii)

(d) (vi), (i) and (iv)

(e) None of these

Directions (11-15): In each of the below questions, a paragraph is given which is followed by a question. Answer the question based on the information presented in the passage.

Q11. There is an attempt by the BharatiyaJanata Party (BJP), which is at the center, to undermine the independence of Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), the country’s premier probe agency, Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) chief SharadPawar said on Monday.

Which of the following words can describe the working of the CBI, from the point of view ShriSharadPawar,when the BJP is at the center?

(a) fulfilment

(b) alarming

(c)supercilious

(d) modest

(e) none of the above

Q12.  Returning to power in the State after a gap of 15 years in 2014, the BharatiyaJanata Party (BJP)-led Maharashtra administration completes four years in office today. While the party is gearing up for next year’s Assembly and general elections by striving to retain blow-hot, blow-cold ally Shiv Sena on its side, Chief Minister DevendraFadnavis exudes confidence that the BJP will come back to power, irrespective of whether the Assemly elections are held in tandem with the Lok Sabha polls or not. He also speaks about the emerging political equations in the State and his government’s performance in an interview with The Hindu.

Describe the nature of relationship between BJP and Shiv Sena?

(a) rancorous

(b) vengeful

(c) genial

(d) benign

(e) none of the above

Q13.From November 2, the State police will bring Sabarimala and adjoining areas under a tight security cover. The Ayyappa temple is due to open on November 5 for a single day’s puja. Priests will conduct special rites to honourSreeChithiraThirunal, the ruler of erstwhile Travancore, on his birth anniversary. A senior official said the police were determined to prevent a repeat of the violent incidents that marred the opening of the temple on October 17. Prohibitory orders will be imposed in the locality.

Which of the following words correctly describe the emotions aroused when one imagine about the time when the Ayyappa temple was opened last time based on the information given in the above paragraph?

(a) rapport

(b) pandemonium

(c) tranquility

(d) geniality

(e) none of the above

Q14. The Supreme Court on Monday dismissed a petition filed by the Kerala government challenging a State High Court decision staying a government order that employees should donate a month’s salary to the Chief Minister’s Distress Relief Fund (CMDRF).

A Bench of Justices Arun Mishra and Vineet Saran said donations require a voluntary spirit and the government should keep in mind the fact that many employees may not be able to afford such an extent of monetary loss.

Which of the following words articulates the feeling aroused in the hearts of Arun Mishra and Vineet Saran about the petition filed by the Kerala Government?

(a) contretemps

(b) irascibility

(c) vexation

(d) approbation

(e) none of the above

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Q15.Jammu and Kashmir’s main regional parties — National Conference and Peoples Democratic Party — seethed on Monday at Governor Satya Pal Malik’s remarks about their respective leaders and corruption in the State.

Mr. Malik, in an interview, said that NC vice-president Omar Abdullah and PDP president Mehbooba Mufti, both former Chief Ministers of the State, “agree privately that civilians should not pelt stones or rush to encounter sites but don’t say so publicly”.

Which of the following words articulates the feeling of the National Conference and Peoples Democratic Party for the Governor Satya Pal Malik’s recent remarks?

(a) assent

(b) approbation

(c) commendation

(d) infuriation

(e) none of the above

Solutions

S1. Ans. (a)

Sol. ‘that’ will not be used before ‘if’ as this is an interrogative sentence of indirect speech in which that is replaced by ‘if/ whether’.

Ex. He asked me if/ whether I was ready.

S2. Ans. (d)

Sol. ‘depends’ will be used in place of ‘depend’ as the subject of the sentence ‘success’ is singular.

S3. Ans. (c)

Sol. ‘thrown’ will be used in place of ‘threw’ as ‘have/ has/ had/ having + V3’ is used.

Ex. Having taken breakfast, he went out.

S4. Ans. (b)

Sol. ‘has been working’ will be used in place of ‘is working’ as the sentence is in present perfect continuous tense ‘for+ time’.

S5. Ans. (a)
Sol.
‘will talk’ will be used in place of ‘talked’ as two actions, that will happen in future are described here.

Ex. He will go to his sister and then he will go to his friend.

S6. Ans. (e)

Sol. fete [verb] means ‘honour or entertain (someone) lavishly’;

Flurry [noun] means ‘a number of things arriving or happening suddenly and during the same period’;

Treat [verb] means ‘behave towards or deal with in a certain way’;

Fathoming [verb] means ‘understand (a difficult problem or an enigmatic person) after much thought’;

Supersede [verb] means ‘take the place of (a person or thing previously in authority or use’;

Throes [noun] means ‘intense or violent pain and struggle’;

From above, it can be understood that the sequence of the words which will correctly fill the blanks is (i), (ii) and (iii). None of the options display the sequence. Hence, the option (e) is the correct answer.

S7. Ans. (c)

Sol. erudition [noun] means ‘the quality of having or showing great knowledge or learning; scholarship’;

Cogent [noun] means ‘(of an argument or case) clear, logical, and convincing’;

Raft [noun] means ‘a large amount of something’;

Alchemy [noun] means ‘a seemingly magical process of transformation, creation, or combination’;

Aptitude [noun] means ‘a natural ability to do something’;

Advocate [noun] means ‘a person who publicly supports or recommends a particular cause or policy’;

From above, it can be understood that the sequence of the words which will correctly fill the blanks is (iv), (vi) and (ii). Hence, the option (c) is the correct answer.

S8. Ans. (a)

Sol. Prodigious [adjective] means ‘remarkably or impressively great in extent, size, or degree’;

Unwonted [adjective] means ‘unaccustomed or unusual’;

Conspicuous [adjective] means ‘clearly visible’;

Tactile [adjective] means ‘of or connected with the sense of touch’;

Bestial [adjective] means ‘savagely cruel and depraved’;

Temporal [adjective] means ‘relating to time’;

From above, it can be understood that the sequence of the words which will correctly fill the blanks is (i), (iii) and (v). Hence, the option (a) is the correct answer.

S9. Ans. (b)

Sol. supplant [verb] means ‘supersede and replace’;

Outlandish [adjective] means ‘looking or sounding bizarre or unfamiliar’;

Favour [verb] means ‘feel or show approval or preference for;

Baffled [verb] means ‘totally bewilder or perplex’;

Swelter [verb] means ‘be uncomfortably hot’;

Secular [adjective] means ‘denoting attitudes, activities, or other things that have no religious or spiritual basis’;

From above, it can be understood that the sequence of the words which will correctly fill the blanks is (iv), (ii) and (i). Hence, the option (b) is the correct answer.

S10. Ans. (d)

Sol. Publicly [adverb] means ‘to be seen by other people; in public’;

Suspected [adjective] means ‘believed to exist or to be true, without certain proof’;

Intuiting [verb] means ‘understand or work out by instinct’;

Beguiling [verb] means ‘charm or enchant (someone), often in a deceptive way’;

Arcane [adjective] means ‘understood by few; mysterious or secret’;

Relentlessly [adverb] means ‘in an unceasingly intense or harsh way’;

From above, it can be understood that the sequence of the words which will correctly fill the blanks is (vi), (i) and (iv). Hence, the option (d) is the correct answer.

S11. Ans. (b)

Sol. Fulfilment [noun] means ‘the achievement of something desired, promised, or predicted’;

Alarming [adjective] means ‘worrying or disturbing’;

Supercilious [adjective] means ‘behaving or looking as though one thinks one is superior to others’;

Modest [adjective] means ‘unassuming in the estimation of one’s abilities or achievements’;

Among the given words, the word ‘alarming’ is the most appropriate word which describes the working of the CBI from the point of view of ShriSharadPawar. The BJP is undermining the independence of Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) which is disturbing.

Hence, the option (b) is the correct answer.

S12. Ans. (e)

Sol. rancorous [adjective] means ‘characterized by bitterness or resentment’;

Vengeful [adjective] means ‘seeking to harm someone in return for a perceived injury’;

Genial [adjective] means ‘friendly and cheerful’;

Benign [adjective] means ‘gentle and kind’;

The answer to the question can be derived from a phrase in the second sentence which is ‘blow-hot, blow-cold ally’.

The idiom blow-hot, blow-cold means ‘to vacillate between two opposing or starkly different states, opinions, or behaviors’;

So, the exact nature of the relationship between BJP and Shiv Sena is a vacillating relationship which vacillate between friendship and enmity.

So, none of the given options correctly describe the nature of relationship between BJP and Shiv Sena.

Hence, the option (e) is the correct answer.

S13. Ans. (b)

Sol. rapport [noun] means ‘a close and harmonious relationship in which the people or groups concerned understand each other’s feelings or ideas and communicate well’

Pandemonium [noun] means ‘wild and noisy disorder or confusion; uproar’; ‘chaos’;

Tranquility [noun] means ‘The quality or state of being tranquil; calm’;

Geniality [noun] means ‘the quality of having a friendly and cheerful manner; affability’;

The given paragraph informs us about events which includes tight security cover, preventing a repeat of the violent incidents etc.

Hence, among the given words, ‘pandemonium’ is the word which appropriately describe emotions aroused when one reads about the events mentioned in the given paragraph.

Hence, the option (b) is the correct answer.

S14. Ans. (a)

Sol. contretemps [noun] means ‘a minor dispute or disagreement’;

irascibility [noun] means ‘the quality of having or showing a tendency to be easily angered’;

vexation [noun] means ‘the state of being annoyed, frustrated, or worried’;

approbation [noun] means ‘approval or praise’;

The phrase ‘The Supreme Court on Monday dismissed a petition filed by the Kerala…’ suggests that the Supreme Court doesn’t agree with the rationale of the Kerala government which was mentioned in their petition. So, the option (d) which means ‘approval or praise’ is incorrect. From the available information presented in the paragraph, it can’t be ascertained if the judges of the Supreme Court were annoyed or angered by the petition filed by the Kerala government, but it can be surely ascertained that the judges of the Supreme Court disagree with the rationale presented by the Kerala Government through their petition.

Hence, the option (a) is the correct answer.

S15. Ans. (d)

Sol. The answer to the given question can be found from a clause present in the first sentence which is ‘Jammu and Kashmir’s main regional parties—National Conference and Peoples Democratic Party—seethed on Monday…

Seethe [verb] means ‘boil or be turbulent as if boiling; (of a person) be filled with intense but unexpressedanger;

Assent [noun] means ‘the expression of approval or agreement’;

Approbation [noun] means ‘approval or noise’;

Commendation [noun] means ‘formal or official praise’;

Infuriation [noun] means ‘a feeling of extreme anger and impatience’;

From above, it can be understood that the word which would correctly articulate the feeling of the regional parties for the Governor’s recent remark is anger.

Among the given options, the option (d) ‘infuriation’ has a meaning which is similar to ‘anger’ or ‘seethe’.

Hence, the option (d) is the correct answer.

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Directions (1-8): Given below is a paragraph that has blank spaces. Corresponding to each blank, five options are given, out of which only one is appropriate. Choose the option that fits most suitably in the given blank making sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

Long did we wait, but no one turned up. An hour _____(1)_____, and the stationmaster came to _____(2)_____. He asked us for our tickets. We showed them to him. He asked us why we tarried. We told him that we were _____(3)_____ for Koregaon and that we were waiting for father or his servant to come, but that neither had turned up and that we did not know how to reach Koregaon.

We were well-dressed children. From our dress or talk no one could make out that we were children of the untouchables. Indeed, the stationmaster was quite sure we were Brahmin children and was extremely touched at the _____(4)_____ in which he found us. As is usual among the Hindus, the stationmaster asked us who we were. Without a moment’s thought I blurted out that we were Mahars. (Mahar is one of the communities which were treated as untouchables in the Bombay Presidency.) He was _____(5)_____. His face underwent a sudden change. We could see that he was _____(6)_____ by a strange feeling of _____(7)_____. As soon ashe heard my reply, he went away to his room and we stood where we were. Fifteen to twenty minutes elapsed; the sun was almost setting. Our father had not turned up nor had he sent his servant, and now the stationmaster had also left us. We were quite _____(8)_____,

and the joy and happiness, which we felt at the beginning of the journey, gave way to a feeling of extreme sadness.

Q1. (a) came

(b) elapsed

(c) went

(d) gone

(e) taken

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Q2. (a) run

(b) eat

(c) enquire

(d) shout

(e) beat

Q3. (a) bound

(b) killed

(c) slapped

(d) slept

(e) cried

Q4. (a) car

(b) happiness

(c) accomplishment

(d) success

(e) plight

Q5. (a) happy

(b) humiliated

(c) beaten

(d) stunned

(e) thankful

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Q6. (a) surprised

(b) overpowered

(c) heard

(d)insulted

(e) encouraged

Q7. (a)attraction

(b)motion

(c) exercise

(d) supposition

(e) repulsion

Q8. (a) driven

(b) crying

(c) satisfied

(d) bewildered

(e) angry

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Directions (9-10): Which of the following phrases, given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (e) i.e., “No correction required” as the answer.

Q9. She was not so well versed in Sanskrit that we had expected.

(a) in Sanskrit because we

(b) in Sanskrit as we

(c) in Sanskrit through we

(d) in Sankrit though we

(e) No correction required

Q10. Any step that the Prime Minister takes to remove violence in the country will be appreciate.

(a) will appreciated

(b) will have appreciated

(c) was appreciating

(d) will be appreciated

(e) were appreciating

Directions (11-15): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

Q11.Scents always have (A)/utter disregard for (B)/the luxurious life (C)/and momentary world (D)/No error(E)

(a)A

(b)B

(c)C

(d)D

(e)E

Q12.The perfume that (A)/your brother (B)/has bought from Italy(C)/is smelling good (D)/No error (E)

(a)A

(b)B

(c)C

(d)D

(e)E

Q13.He informed (A)/me that he (B)/knew to play(C)/on the harmonium (D)/No error (E)

(a)A

(b)B

(c)C

(d)D

(e)E

Q14.Being (A)/a beautiful city (B)/it charmed (C)/all of us (D)/No error (E)

(a)A

(b)B

(c)C

(d)D

(e)E

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Q15.He does (A)/nothing but to (B)/annoy her (C)/younger sister (D)/No error (E)

(a)A

(b)B

(c)C

(d)D

(e)E

Solutions

S1. Ans. (b)

Sol. The correct way to solve such question is filling the blank with your own word which is according to you is satisfying the grammatical and contextual requirements and then, choosing the option which has a meaning closer to your own word.
The hint for the correct word is present in the preceding sentence ‘Long did we wait, but no one turned up. An hour_____’. ‘An hour has passedis a sensible statement. Among the given options, the word ‘elapsed’ is the most appropriate word which fills the blank.

Hence, the option (b) is the correct answer.

S2. Ans. (c)

Sol. The context of the paragraph suggests that persons being referred by ‘we’ were waiting for a long time but no one turned up and then a stationmaster came for something. That something could be determined from the fifth sentence of the first paragraph ‘He asked us why we tarried’. The stationmaster was asking questions to ‘we’. Among the given options, the word ‘enquire’ is the most appropriate word which could fill the blank.

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

S3. Ans. (a)

Sol. The hint for the blank can be found from the tailing clause of the sentence ‘that we did not know how to reach Koregaon’. It can be inferred that ‘We’, in the paragraph, were going to Koregaon. Among the given options, the word ‘boundhas a meaning closer to the phrase ‘going to’. Hence, the option (a) is the correct answer.

S4. Ans. (e)

Sol. The children were waiting for either their father or their father’s servant to come to the station and pick them up but upon long wait, neither had come. So, the children were in the sorry state. Among the given options, the word ‘plight’ is the most appropriate word which could fill the blank. Hence, the option (e) is the correct answer.

S5. Ans. (d)

Sol. From the context of the sentences appeared preceding the blank, it can be deduced that the stationmaster was someone who discriminated based on caste. He was good in his behavior to them when he had the perception that the children were Brahmin. So, he must be shocked upon knowing that the children belonged to a caste which were unfortunately treated as untouchables. Among the given options, the word ‘stunned’ is the most appropriate word. Hence, the option (d) is the correct answer.

S6. Ans. (b)

Sol. The good behavior of the stationmaster who seemed to be discriminating based on caste, upon knowing that the children belonged to a community which were unfortunately treated as untouchable must be challenged by a strange feeling of repulsion/annoyance/irritation/hatred. Among the given options, the word ‘overpowered’ is the most appropriate word. Hence, the option (b) is the correct answer.

S7. Ans. (e)

Sol. The good behavior of the stationmaster who seemed to be discriminating based on caste, upon knowing that the children belonged to a community which were unfortunately treated as untouchable must be challenged by a strange feeling of repulsion/annoyance/irritation/hatred. Among the given options, the word ‘repulsion’ is the most appropriate word. Hence, the option (e) is the correct answer.

S8. Ans. (d)

Sol. The sudden change in the behviour of the stationmaster upon knowing about the community to which the children belonged must have surprised the children. Among the given options, the word ‘bewildered’ is the most appropriate word. Hence, the option (d) is the correct answer

S9. Ans. (b)

Sol. In the highlighted phrase, instead of ‘that’, ‘as’ would be used because the sentence is based on ‘so—as’.

Hence, the option (b) is the correct answer.

S10. Ans. (d)

Sol. Instead of ‘appreciate’ in the highlighted part, ‘appreciated’ would be used. In passive voice, ‘to be [is/are/am/was/were/be//being/been] + V3 form is always used.

Hence, the option (d) is the correct answer.

S11. Ans. (a)

Sol. The error is in part (a) of the sentence.

‘Scents’ should be replaced by ‘saints’.

Scents mean a particular kind of smell whereas saints mean a person distinguished for holiness.

S12. Ans. (d)

Sol. The error is in part (d) of the sentence.

‘is smelling’ should be replaced by ‘smells’

Verbs such as look, seem, taste, feel, smell, and sound are sensory (sense) verbs.

subject + sense verb + adjective

S13. Ans. (c)

Sol. The error is in part (c) of the sentence.

In part (c) of the sentence ‘how’ should be used after ‘knew’

Know + how/where/when/why + infinitive

S14. Ans. (e)

Sol. There is no error in the given sentence.Therefore option (e) is the best answer choice.

Though there is no subject of reference with ‘being’ but ‘it’ has been used as the main subject of the sentence.

Placing ‘it’ before ‘being’ makes a perfect sense to the sentence (it being a beautiful city = it was a beautiful city)

S15. Ans. (b)

Sol.The error is in part (b) of the sentence. ‘to’ has to be removed after ‘but’ to make sentence grammatically correct.

‘To’ is wrongly used here after but. Whenever ‘but’ is used after any form of ‘do’, conveying ‘except’ as a meaning and there is a use of verb after that then ‘to’ should not used.

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Direction (1-8): Read the following passage and answer the following questions.

Energy is generated in the interior of the Sun through sequences of nuclear reactions in which four protons fuse together to form a helium-4 nucleus. These sequences are accompanied by the release of two particles known as electron neutrinos. Models suggest that 99% of the nuclear energy released by the Sun originates from three reaction sequences — collectively known as the proton–proton (pp) chain — that are initiated by the fusion of two protons. In a paper in Nature, the BorexinoCollaboration reports the first complete measurement of neutrino fluxes that originate from these three sequences, based on an analysis of more than 2,000 days of data collection. The results help us to understand the details of how and why the Sun shines.

Neutrinos interact weakly with matter, and therefore escape almost unhindered from the Sun’s interior, to reach Earth about eight minutes later. Solar neutrinos therefore provide a direct view into the nuclear furnace in the Sun’s core. The Borexino experiment detects such neutrinos and determines how much energy they have by measuring the amount of light produced when the particles interact with the detecting agent (an organic liquid, called the scintillator, which is kept underground to minimize the amount of background radiation that can interfere with the neutrino signals). In contrast to all other solar-neutrino experiments, Borexino can measure the energies of both high- and low-energy neutrinos, which makes it possible to study the structure of the solar core using a technique known as neutrino spectroscopy.

Electron neutrinos can change into two other types (or flavours) of neutrino, known as tau and muon neutrinos, as they travel to Earth, a phenomenon known as flavour oscillation. The Borexino experiment is more sensitive to electron neutrinos than to tau or muon neutrinos, and so flavour oscillation needs to be accounted for when the measured neutrino fluxes are used to calculate the fluxes produced in the Sun. Taking this into consideration, the Borexino collaborators used the measured neutrino flux to work out the total power generated by nuclear reactions in the Sun’s core, with an uncertainty of about 10%, and found that this is the same as the measured photon output — thus showing that nuclear fusion is indeed the source of energy in the Sun. This value, calculated for the amount of energy produced through nuclear reactions, is comparable with previous results obtained by combining data from several neutrino-detection experiments, and places the most robust and model-independent constraints on the source of solar energy.

The findings also have interesting ramifications for neutrino physics. By combining their data with predictions from standard solar models, the collaborators determine a quantity known as the electron neutrino survival probability (which describes the probability that an electron neutrino created in the Sun will also be detected as an electron neutrino at the detector) for neutrinos produced in four reactions of the pp chain. The calculated survival probabilities include the best available value for low-energy neutrinos, which correspond to an energy regime in which flavour oscillation is expected to occur mostly in vacuum conditions. Combined with the survival probabilities determined for higher-energy neutrinos, the findings give strong support to our current understanding of neutrino oscillations — that is, the idea that low-energy neutrinos change flavour as they propagate through a vacuum, and that the oscillations of high-energy neutrinos are enhanced by their interactions with electrons.

The new results also shed light on a long-standing paradox in solar physics, which arises because the chemical composition of the Sun is not well established. The most-recent complete spectroscopic determinations of the Sun’s metallicity (the abundance of all solar elements heavier than helium) yielded a value that is 35% lower than older spectroscopic results. Intriguingly, when numerical models of the solar interior are constructed using the lower value of metallicity as a constraint, the simulated properties are at odds with our knowledge of the Sun’s interior structure (which is well characterized by helioseismological studies that analyse oscillations produced by waves that propagate through the Sun’s interior). But when the older (higher) metallicity values are used, the simulations reproduce solar properties very well. This is known as the solar abundance problem and calls into question the validity of the present models of stellar evolution, or of spectroscopic methods for determining the Sun’s composition, or both.

However, the relative contributions of the three different reaction sequences in the pp-chain, determined from the Borexino experiment, can be used to infer the temperature in the solar core — a region that is poorly mapped by helioseismological studies. The Borexino findings hint at a core temperature that is consistent with predictions from models that assume high solar metallicity. That said, the results are not yet precise enough to provide a definite answer to the solar abundance problem, because neutrino fluxes predicted by both the high- and low-metallicity solar models are compatible with the new results.

Q1. If flavor oscillation wasn’t a reality (assume, if this to be true), which of the followings would have been plausible?

(I) More solar energy per nuclear fusion reaction would be produced.

(II) The calculation of the neutrino flux produced in the Sun based on the Borexino collaborators experiment would have been more accurate.

(III) The solar abundance paradox wouldn’t be there.

(a) Only (I)

(b) Only (II)

(c) Only (III)

(d) Both (I) and (III)

(e) All of (I), (II) and (III)

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Q2. Which of the following statements, if true (assume all the following statements to be true), will prove that nuclear fusion reactions are approximately the only source of energy in the Sun?
(I) A highly accurate and powerful neutrino detector at Alaska didn’t detect any neutrino in the solar radiations.
(II) A neutrino detector which is highly sensitive and equally sensitive to electron neutrino, tau neutrino and muon neutrino detects only electron neutrinos in the solar radiation.
(III) The power output measured for the solar radiation is equal to the value obtained for the power generated by the nuclear fusion reactions, calculated after measuring and using the value of the neutrino fluxes present in the solar radiation, which take place in the Sun.

(a) Only (I)

(b) Only (II)

(c) Only (III)

(d) Both (I) and (III)

(e) All of (I), (II) and (III)

Q3. If the experiment discussed in the passage could only measure the energies of high-energy neutrinos, but not of low-energy neutrinos (assume this to be true), then which of the following statements would be false?

(I) Nuclear Fusion is indeed the source of energy in the Sun.

(II) The Borexino Collaboration reporting the first complete measurement of neutrino fluxes that are produced in the Sun because of the three nuclear fusion reaction sequences known as proton-proton (pp) chain which takes place in the Sun.

(III) Electron neutrinos can change into two other types (or flavours) of neutrino, known as tau and muon neutrinos, as they travel to Earth, a phenomenon known as flavor oscillation.

(IV) The solar neutrinos detected by the experiment provide a direct view into the nuclear furnace in the Sun.  

(a) All of (I), (II), (III) and (IV)

(b) Both (II) and (IV)

(c) Both (I) and (II)

(d) Both (I) and (III)

(e) All of (I), (II) and (III)

Q4. The likelihood of which of the following processes or events would get sharply reduced if there had been no vacuum in the space between the Sun and the Earth? Kindly answer the question based on the available information of the given passage.

(a) Occurrence of the Nuclear Fusion Reactions in the Sun.

(b) Creation of two electron neutrinos during the nuclear fusion reactions.

(c)  Abilities of the neutrinos to escape almost unhindered from the Sun’s interior to reach Earth.

(d)  The occurrence of Flavours oscillation.

(e)  None of the above

Q5. If human could observe the light produced by one neutrino as a pulse of Blue light observable to a human till the duration of the point of contact between the neutrino and detecting agent, then, while conducting the Borexino experiment on favourable conditions, what would be the visual spectacles of the detecting agent when it is shaped like a thin TV screen? Assume the colour of the detecting agent to be white.

(a) The screen-shaped detecting agent would turn blue uniformly across the screen during the time the experiment was being conducted.

(b) The neutrinos wouldn’t produce any visual spectacle on the screen-shaped detecting agent.

(c) The neutrinos would produce sparks of blue light of equal brightness on the screen-shaped detecting agent.

(d) The neutrinos would produce sparks of blue light of unequal brightness on the screen-shaped detecting agent.

(e) None of the above.

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Q6. Why could the Borexino experiment not provide a definite answer to the solar abundance problem?

(I) The neutrino fluxes predicted by both the High- and low-metallicity solar models are compatible with the total neutrino flux calculated by the Borexino experiment.

(II) The most-recent complete spectroscopic determinations of the Sun’s metallicity (the abundance of all solar elements heavier than helium) yielded a value that is 35% lower than older spectroscopic results.

(III) The Borexino findings hint at a core temperature that is consistent with predictions from models that assume high solar metallicity.

(a) Only (I)

(b) Both (II) and (III)

(c) Both (I) and (III)

(d) Both (I) and (II)

(e) All of (I), (II) and (III)

Q7. If neutrinos were interacting with matter strongly, then which of the following would be true?
(I) The number of neutrinos reaching the Earth would be lesser.

(II) The Sun would have a higher value of metallicity.

(III) The Borexino experiment couldn’t be able to prove if nuclear fusion reactions were indeed the reason for more than 99% of energy produced in the Sun.

(a) Only (I)

(b) Both (I) and (III)

(c) All of (I), (II) and (III)

(d) Both (II) and (III)

(e) None of (I), (II) and (III)

Q8. Which of the following words has a meaning which is SIMILAR to the meaning of the highlighted word ‘unhindered’, as mentioned in the second paragraph of the passage?

(a) Viscous

(b) Cryptic

(c) Remiss

(d) Unbridled

(e) Imperious

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Direction (9-15): Read the following passage and answer the following questions.

A fundamental feature of any electrical measurement is noise — random and uncorrelated fluctuations of signals. Although noise is typically regarded as undesirable, it can be used to probe quantum effects and thermodynamic quantities. Writing in Nature, SheinLumbroso et al. report the discovery of a type of electronic noise that is distinct from all others previously observed. Understanding such noise could be essential for designing efficient nanoscale electronics.

A century ago, the German physicist Walter Schottky published a seminal paper that described different causes and manifestations of noise in electrical measurements. Schottky showed that an electric current produced by an applied voltage is noisy, even at absolute zero temperature, when all random heat-induced motion has stopped. This noise is a direct consequence of the fact that electric charge is quantized — it comes in discrete units. Because the noise results from the granularity of the charge flow, it is called shot noise.

It was already known at the time of Schottky’s work that, in systems that are in thermal equilibrium, noise with distinctly different properties from shot noise comes into play at non-zero temperatures — this is known as thermal (Johnson–Nyquist) noise. Today, shot noise is a key tool for characterizing nanoscale electrical conductors because it contains information about quantum-transport properties that cannot be revealed from mere electric-current measurements.

SheinLumbroso et al. studied junctions composed of single atoms or molecules suspended between a pair of gold electrodes. The authors fabricated the electrodes by breaking a thin gold wire into two parts and bringing the parts gently back into contact. They evaporated hydrogen molecules on to this device, which is known as a mechanically controllable break junction, so that individual hydrogen atoms or molecules were captured between the tips of the electrodes, thereby establishing an electrical contact.

The resulting junctions constituted a single quantum-mechanical transport channel in which electrons could be transmitted from one electrode to the other with a probability that could be adjusted by varying the openness of the channel. This set-up provided an ideal test bed for exploring the properties of the so-far-overlooked noise contribution.

The authors observed a strong increase in electronic noise when they applied a temperature difference between the two electrodes, compared with when the electrodes were at the same temperature. The additional noise, which the authors call delta-T noise, scaled with the square of the temperature difference. It exhibited the same dependence on electrical conductance as shot noise.

SheinLumbroso and colleagues explained their finding using the quantum theory of charge transport, known as the Landauer theory, which has been developed in the past few decades. This theory incorporates both shot noise and thermal noise and has been tested intensively down to the atomic and molecular scale3. It has been found to accurately describe many experimental observations obtained when working entirely in thermal equilibrium, or when applying small voltages. The authors took a closer look at the theory and found that it includes a noise component that occurs when solely a temperature difference is applied across a junction: delta-T noise.

It is well established that an electric current can arise from a temperature difference in the absence of an applied voltage — a phenomenon called the Seebeck effect. However, delta-T noise is not the shot noise associated with this thermally induced current. The authors’ results indicate that delta-T noise is larger than this shot noise, and has a different dependence on the temperature difference. Instead, the results suggest that delta-T noise arises from the discreteness of the charge carriers mediating the heat transport.

Because the Landauer theory is widely used, it is surprising that delta-T noise has not previously been observed. The importance of carefully considering all of the spatial temperature differences and resulting electric currents to understand the current flow in atomic and molecular contacts was pointed out in a 2013 paper, but implications for noise were not addressed.

SheinLumbroso et al. found that the Landauer theory accurately describes all of the characteristic properties of delta-T noise. In this sense, their experiments are yet another beautiful demonstration of the theory. But the work also conveys a key message: careful design and rigorous analysis of experiments are required when studying any of the details of quantum transport.

The authors’ discovery also has practical implications. In particular, quantum-transport experiments that are not entirely in thermal equilibrium could show strongly enhanced noise, which might be mistaken for noise arising from interactions between the charge carriers or from other subtle effects. Experimentalists who wonder about finding unexpectedly high noise in their electric-current measurements might wish to revisit their set-ups to search for unintentional temperature gradients. The most practical application of the authors’ work is probably that the enhanced noise could be used to detect unwanted hotspots in electrical circuits.

Q9. Which of the followings describe a/the utility/utilities of random and uncorrelated fluctuations of signals?

(a) They cause the electric current produced by an applied voltage at absolute zero temperature to get quantized.

(b) They cause Seebeck effect which is flowing of electric current across two electrodes due to temperature difference in the absence of voltage.

(c) They help in probing quantum effects and thermodynamic quantities.

(d) Both (b) and (c)

(e) None of the above

Q10. Which of the followings information has/have encouraged the author of the passage to say, ‘the work of SheinLumbroso and his colleagues, as mentioned in the passage, also conveys a key message: careful design and rigorous analysis of experiments are required when studying any of the details of quantum transport?’

(I) A 2013 paper pointed out the importance of careful consideration all of the spatial temperature differences and resulting electric currents to understand the current flow in atomic and molecular contacts but still the implications for noise were not addressed.

(II) Although Landauer theory is widely used and it accurately describes all the characteristic properties of delta-T noise, the delta-T noise has not previously been observed.

(III) The results from the experiments by SheinLumbroso and his colleagues indicate that delta-T noise is larger than shot noise and has a different dependence on the temperature difference.

(a) Only (I)

(b) Both (I) and (II)

(c) All of (I), (II) and (III)

(d) Both (II) and (III)

(e) None of these

Q11. Which of the following statements explain the cause of shot-noise?

(a) Discreetness of the charge carriers mediating the heat transport.

(b) Flow of electric charge in discrete units.

(c) Application of different temperature across the electrodes

(d) Both of (a) and (b)

(e) None of the above

Directions (12-14): Consider a single quantum-mechanical transport channel which consists of a mechanically controllable break junction. The mechanically controllable break junction has an individual hydrogen atom captured between a pair of gold electrodes which are fabricated by breaking a thin gold wire into two parts and bringing the parts gently back into contact, thereby establishing an electrical contact. The name of one of the electrodes is the electrode-A and the same for the other the electrode-B.

Q12. The temperature of the electrode-A and electrode-B is zero kelvin. The potential difference between the electrode-A and electrode-B is 4V. Which of the following electronic noises would be observed in the experiment?

(I) Shot noise

(II) Thermal noise

(III) Delta-T noise

(a) Both (I) and (II)

(b) Both (II) and (III)

(c) Only (I)

(d) Only (III)

(e) All of (I), (II) and (III)

Q13. The temperature of the electrode-A and electrode-B is zero-degree Celsius. The potential difference between the electrode-A and electrode-B is 54V. Which of the following noises would be observed in the experiment?

(I) Shot noise

(II) Thermal noise

(III) Delta-T noise

(a) Both (I) and (II)

(b) Both (II) and (III)

(c) Only (I)

(d) Only (III)

(e) All of (I), (II) and (III)

Q14.The temperature of the electrode-A is five-degree Kelvin and that of electrode-B is zero-degree Celsius. The Voltage difference between the electrode-A and electrode-B is 0V. Which of the following noises would be observed in the experiment if thermal noise arises from the random thermal motion of electrons – even at equilibrium conditions when current is not flowing?

(I) Shot noise

(II) Thermal noise

(III) Delta-T noise

(a) Both (I) and (II)

(b) Both (II) and (III)

(c) Only (I)

(d) Only (III)

(e) All of (I), (II) and (III)

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Q15. Which of the following words has a meaning which is SIMILAR to the meaning of the highlighted word ‘seminal’, as mentioned in the second paragraph of the passage?

(a) Remis

(b) Imperious

(c) Baleful

(d) Formative

(e) Grating

Solutions

S1. Ans. (b)

Sol. The correct answer is the option (b). The first sentence of the third paragraph tells us about what flavor oscillation is. The phenomenon in which electron neutrinos change into two other types (or flavours) of neutrino, known as tau and muon neutrinos, as they travel to Earth, a phenomenon known as flavor oscillation. Now, read the third sentence of the fourth paragraph which is ‘The calculated survival probabilities include the best available value for low-energy neutrinos, which correspond to an energy regime in which flavour oscillation is expected to occur mostly in vacuum conditions.’ Upon read these sentences, we understand that the flavor oscillation of electron neutrinos which are produced in the sun mostly take place in vacuum conditions when they leave the Sun and travel to other places like the Earth, and it doesn’t take place in the sun and/or isn’t the part of the nuclear fusion reactions which take place in the sun. So, neither (I) nor (III) could be correct.

Now, read the first two sentences of the third paragraph.Upon reading them, we understand that electron neutrinos are produced during the nuclear fusion reactions which take place in the Sun and when these electron neutrinos travels from the Sun to Earth, some of them get converted to other two neutrinos, which are tau and muon. And, the Borexino experiment is more sensitive to electron neutrinos than to tau or muon neutrinos. If there were no such phenomenon as flavor oscillation, then electron neutrinos which were produced in the Sun during the nuclear fusion reactions would reach the earth and were detected by the equipment of the Borexino experiment as it is and wouldn’t get converted into the other two neutrinos. And because the detector of the Borexino experiment is more sensitive to electron neutrinos than to the tau or muon neutrinos (which wouldn’t produce if flavor oscillation weren’t a reality), so the calculation of the neutrino flux produced in the Sun based on the Borexino collaborators experiment would have been more accurate. Hence, the statement (II) is correct.

The option (b) is the correct answer.

S2. Ans. (c)
Sol.
Detecting only electron neutrinos in the solar radiation could be used to calculate the neutrino flux, and consequently could help in calculating the total energy generated through nuclear fusion process in the sun. But, this would not prove if the Nuclear Reactions produces nearly all the energy produced in the Sun. To prove if the Nuclear Fusion Reactions is the major source of solar energy or produces nearly all the energy produced in the Sun, one must prove if the energy produced through nuclear fusion reactions, which is calculated through measuring the neutrinos fluxes present in the solar radiation, is equal to the total power output in the solar radiation.

Among the given statements, if only statement (III) is true, one can prove that the nuclear fusion reactions are approximately the only source of energy in the Sun.

Hence, the correct answer is the option (c).

S3. Ans. (b)

Sol. The experiment discussed in the passage is the Borexino Collaboration project which detects neutrinos and determines how much energy they have, and these measurements could also be used to calculate the neutrino fluxes present in the solar radiation (or generated in the Sun, knowing both are equal). If the experiment could only detect high-energy neutrinos, then it would mean that the low energy neutrinos which were generated in the Sun after a nuclear-fusion reaction wouldn’t be detected by the Borexino Collaboration project, meaning that the measurement made through using the observation made by the experiment would not be complete. So, the value of neutrino fluxes which were calculated through employing the observation made by the experiment and neutrinos detected by the Borexino collaboration project would not be complete. So, claiming if the Borexino collaboration made the first complete measurement of neutrino fluxes that are produced in the Sun would be wrong.

Also, because the Borexino collaboration experiment detects incomplete neutrinos. Therefore, claiming if the solar neutrinos (or neutrinos present in the Sun) provide a direct view into the nuclear furnace in the Sun would also be wrong.

The abilities or inabilities of an experiment can’t change the attributes of things which are observed. So, the inabilities of the experiment won’t change the source of energy in the Sun. Neither would it change the abilities of the electron neutrinos to change into two other types of neutrino, known as tau and muon neutrinos.

Hence, the Statements (II) and (IV) would be false, and the option (b) is the correct answer.

S4. Ans. (d)

Sol. Let’s try to find out the occurrence of which of the given events depends on the vacuum in the space between the Sun and the Earth. And we have to answer the question based on the information available in the passage.

Does the nuclear fusion reaction which take place inside the Sun depend on the vacuum in the space between the Sun and the Earth?

No. The passage doesn’t mention any of the above. So, the option (a) is incorrect.

Does the creation of the two electron neutrinos during the nuclear fusion reactions depend on the vacuum in the space between the Sun and the Earth?

The two electron neutrinos are the products of the nuclear fusion reactions which take place in the Sun as given in the first paragraph. Because the given passage doesn’t mention about the dependence of the nuclear fusion reactions which take place in the Sun on the vacuum in the space between the Sun and the Earth, so the by-products of the same nuclear fusion reactions shouldn’t depend on the vacuum.

So, the option (b) is also incorrect.

Kindly read the first sentence of the second paragraph which is ‘Neutrinos interact weakly with matter…’

If there wouldn’t be vacuum in the space between the Sun and the Earth, then there would be matter in the space between the Sun and the Earth. But the neutrinos interact weakly with matter and the same neutrinos escape the interior of the Sun unhindered. So, had there been matter or no vacuum in the space between the Earth and the Sun, the neutrinos would not interact with the matter and should reach the Earth unhindered in the same way as the neutrinos escape the inner core of the Sun.

So, the option (c) is also incorrect.

Now, kindly read the third sentence of the fourth paragraph which is ‘The calculated survival probabilities include the best available value for low-energy neutrinos, which correspond to an energy regime in which flavour oscillation is expected to occur mostly in vacuum conditions.’ The statement seems to suggest that ‘low-energy neutrinos correspond to an energy regime in which flavor oscillation is expected to occur mostly in vacuum conditions’. Meaning, Favourable conditions for the occurrence of flavor oscillation are: neutrinos having a certain energy level which correspond to a certain energy regime; second is the presence of vacuum. If the vacuum in the space between the Sun and the Earth is replaced with matter, then the likelihood of the occurrence of the Flavour Oscillations should decrease sharply.

Hence, the option (d) is the correct answer.

S5. Ans. (d)

Sol. The correct answer is the option (d).

As mentioned in the third sentence of the second paragraph, the Borexino experiment detects neutrinos and determine how much energy they have by measuring the amount of light produced when the particles interact with the detecting agent. The question asks us to assume that a human could observe the light produced by the neutrinos when they interact with the detecting agent, the colour of the light produced when a neutrino interact with the detecting agent is blue, the detecting-agent is shaped like a thin TV screen, and the colour of the screen-shaped detecting-agent is white. The last sentence of the second paragraph tells us that the Borexino can detect both high- and low-energy neutrinos. From the paragraph 2, we also understand that the amount of light produced by a neutrino while it interacts with the detecting agent would reflect the energy it has. This would mean that a low-energy neutrino should produce an amount of light different from that produced by a high-energy neutrino. So, while conducting the borexino experiment, the screen-shaped detecting agent should be illuminated with sparks of blue light of unequal brightness.

Hence, the option (d) is the correct answer.

S6. Ans. (a)

Sol. The answer to the question can be determined from the last sentence of the last paragraph which is ‘That said, the results are not yet precise enough to provide a definite answer to the solar abundance problem, because neutrino fluxes predicted by both the high-and low-metallicity solar models are compatible with the new results’.

Hence, the statement (I) is the correct reason and the option (a) is the correct answer.

S7. Ans. (b)

Sol. The answer to the question can be found from the second paragraph. The first sentence says, ‘Neutrinos interact weakly with matter, and therefore escape almost unhindered from the Sun’s interior, to reach Earth about eight minutes later.’ Were neutrinos interacting highly with matter, and it might not be possible for them to reach Earth in large numbers as a significant proportion of them would have transformed to something else due to their interaction with matters present in the interior of the Sun. If the number of neutrinos which were reaching the Earth are lesser than the number of neutrinos produced in the Sun due to the nuclear fusion reaction, then the flux calculated by the Borexino experiment would be less than the neutrino flux generated in the Sun Core and hence, the ability of the Borexino experiment to use the measured neutrino flux to work out the total power generated by nuclear reactions in the Sun’s core would be less. Hence, the Borexino experiment couldn’t be able to prove if nuclear fusion reactions produce more than 99% of energy produced in the Sun.

Hence, the statements (I) and (III) are correct, and the option (b) is the correct answer.

S8. Ans. (d)

Sol. Unhindered [adjective] means ‘not hindered or obstructed’;

Viscous [adjective] means ‘having a thick, sticky consistency between solid and liquid’;

Cryptic [adjective] means ‘having a meaning that is mysterious or obscure’;

Remiss [adjective] means ‘lacking care or attention to duty; negligent’;

Imperious [adjective] means ‘arrogant and domineering’;

Unbridled [adjective] means ‘unconstrained; uncontrolled’;

From above, we can say that the option (d) is the correct answer.

S9. Ans. (c)

Sol. The answer to the question can be derived from the second sentence of the first paragraph which says, ‘although noise is typically regarded as undesirable, it can be used to probe quantum effects and thermodynamic quantities.’

Hence, the option (c) is the correct answer.

S10. Ans. (b)

Sol. The answer to the question can be found from the seventh, ninth and tenth paragraphs. Kindly notice the following sentences:

Seventh Paragraph, last sentence: The authors took a closer look at the theory (Landuer theory) and found that it includes a noise component that occurs when solely a temperature difference is applied across a junction: delta-T noise.

Ninth Paragraph, whole paragraph: Because the Landauer theory is widely used, it is surprising that delta-T noise has not previously been observed. The importance of carefully considering all of the spatial temperature differences and resulting electric currents to understand the current flow in atomic and molecular contacts was pointed out in a 2013 paper, but implications for noise were not addressed.

Tenth paragraph, first sentence: SheinLumbroso et al. found that the Landauer theory accurately describes all of the characteristic properties of delta-T noise.

The Landauer theory is known for many years, has been widely used and includes a noise component that occurs when solely a temperature difference is applied across a junction: delta-T noise. But still the delta-T noise is observed only recently which is somewhat surprising and reflects that rigorous analysis while conducting the experiments relating to the Landauer experiment were not made.

It seems that in that respect, the author of the passage made the highlighted sentence in the paragraph.

Hence, the option (b) is the correct answer.

S11. Ans. (b)

Sol. The answer of the question can be derived from the second-last and last sentence of the second paragraph, ‘This noise is a direct consequence of the fact that electric charge is quantized—it comes in discrete units. Because the noise results from the granularity of the charge flow, it is called shot noise.’

From above, it can be understood that the option (b) is the correct answer.

S12. Ans. (c)

Sol.  The correct answer is the option (c). The correct answer to the question can be derived from the second, third and fourth sentences of the paragraph 2. It is given to us that the temperature of the electrodes A and B is zero kelvin or absolute zero, and there is a potential gradient between the two electrodes. At a temperature of absolute zero, there won’t be any thermal-noise (as discussed in the paragraph 3), and because there is an absence of temperature gradient across the electrodes, so the Delta-T noise would also be absent. So, the only noise which would be observed must be the Shot-noise.

Hence, the option (c) is the correct answer.

S13. Ans. (a)

Sol. Zero-degree Celsius is different from Zero-degree Kelvin. Zero-degree Celsius is not an absolute-zero temperature. So, the equipment is both at a temperature greater than absolute-zero and at a temperature-equilibrium.

The answer to the question can be derived upon reading the second and the third paragraphs.

Upon reading the paragraph 2, we understand that there is an electronic noise, called shot noise, associated because of the voltage difference across the electrodes, which is observed even at temperature of absolute-zero.

Upon reading the third paragraph, we understand that in systems that are in thermal equilibrium at non-zero temperatures (temperature greater than absolute-zero or zero-degree Kelvin), noise with distinctly different properties from shot noise comes into play which is known as thermal noise.

The given system is at a thermal equilibrium at a temperature greater than absolute-zero and there is a voltage gradient across the electrodes.

So, the noises which should be observed in the experiment are shot noise and thermal noise.

Hence, the option (a) is the correct answer.

S14. Ans. (e)

Sol. The answer to the question can be derived from when the sixth paragraph is read along with the first five paragraphs.

The first sentence of the sixth paragraph says, ‘The authors observed a strong increase in electronic noisewhen they applied a temperature difference between the two electrodes, compared with when the electrodes were at the same temperature.

The phrase ‘strong increase in electronic noise’ means that the noise which is observed (when there is a temperature gradient across the electrodes) in addition to the other noises.

The voltage gradient across the electrodes causes shot noise. Because the temperature of both the electrodes is greater than 0-degree Kelvin (absolute-zero). So, there will be thermal noise.

The presence of temperature gradient across the electrodes would cause Delta-T noise.

From above, we understand that all the three noises would be observed.

Hence, the correct answer is the option (e).

S15. Ans. (d)

Sol. Seminal [adjective] means ‘Strongly influencing later developments’;

Remis [adjective] means ‘lacking care or attention to duty’ negligent’;

Imperious [adjective] means ‘arrogant and domineering’;

Baleful [adjective] means ‘having a harmful or destructive effect’;

Formative [adjective] means ‘Serving to form something, especially having a profound influence on a person’s development’;

Grating [adjective] means ‘irritating’;

From above, we understand that the word ‘formative’ has a meaning similar to the word ‘seminal’ and hence, the option (d) is the correct answer.

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Directions (1-10): In the following questions, a sentence is divided into four parts consisting of a highlighted word in each part. Choose the option reflecting the word which is either misspelt or grammatically incorrect. If all the highlighted words are correct, choose option (e) i.e. “all are correct” as your answer choice.

Q1. The Monetry Policy Committee / of India is a committee of the Reserve Bank of India/ that is responsible for fixing the / benchmark interest rate in India.

(a) Monetry

(b) Reserve

(c) Responsible

(d) Interest

(e) All are correct

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Q2. Trade wars can easily / lead to confrontation, which may / result in impulsive / behviour and misjudgment.

(a) Trade

(b) Confrontation

(c) Impulsive

(d) Behviour

(e) All are correct

Q3. Saudi Arabia signalled its discomfort / with the faling prices / and hinted at a fresh cut / of one million barrels a day.

(a) Signalled

(b) Faling

(c) Hinted

(d) Barrels

(e) All are correct

Q4. The barbarous reprisals into / which Sultan Mahmud allowed himself / to be carried away only acentuated / the difficulty of the situation.

(a) Reprisals

(b) Allowed

(c) Acentuated

(d) Difficulty

(e) All are correct

Q5. Because the teacher / was not giving any afirmmation, / the students were unsure if they / understood the directions for the test.

(a) Because

(b) Afirmmation

(c) Unsure

(d) Directions

(e) All are correct

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Q6. Libby was disappointed / because her husband / did not fulfill his promise / of watering the plants.

(a) Disappointed

(b) Because

(c) Fulfill

(d) Watering

(e) All are correct

Q7. The innovations spured by digital breakthroughs / are starting to revolutionize the availability / of financial services, which is sorely needed, / with 1.7 billion worldwide unbanked.

(a) Spured

(b) Revolutionize

(c) Sorely

(d) Unbanked

(e) All are correct

Q8. According to the label, / this solution should accelrate /my hair growth and provide me / with long tresses in a short time.

(a) According

(b) Accelrate

(c) Provide

(d) Tresses

(e) All are correct

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Q9. In a troubled economy / like this one, a recession is unevitable / and expected within the / next three months.

(a) Troubled

(b) Unevitable

(c) Expected

(d) Months

(e) All are correct

Q10. Although I tried not to hold a grudge, / I felt perverse joy / when I learned my mean/ supervisor had been fired.

(a) Grudge

(b) Perverse

(c) Learned

(d) Supervisor

(e) All are correct

Directions (11-15): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

Q11.She did not let the (A)/grief of her losseffect the (B)/kingdomadministration (C)/and the lives of her people. (D)/ No error (E)

(a)A

(b)B

(c)C

(d)D

(e)E

Q12.The industry (A)/has the potential of(B)/attaining $34bn export(C)/earningstill the year 2010 (D)/ No error (E)

(a)A

(b)B

(c)C

(d)D

(e)E

Q13.A lot of companies(A)/in Tripura have(B)/now been focused(C)/on branding(D)/No error(E)

(a)A

(b)B

(c)C

(d)D

(e)E

Q14.Epson is one (A)/of the most (B)/respected manufacturer (C)/in the print market (D)/No error(E)

(a)A

(b)B

(c)C

(d)D

(e)E

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Q15.Unless you (A)/ work hard (B)/youwill not (C)/ pass the examination (D)/No error(E)

(a)A

(b)B

(c)C

(d)D

(e)E

Solutions

S1. Ans. (a)

Sol. The highlighted word in the first part is incorrectly spelled as “Monetry”. However, the precise spelling of the word in “Monetary” and it means relating to money or currency. All the other words have been spelt correctly and are in appropriate grammatical syntax. Hence, option (a) is the most suitable answer choice.

S2. Ans. (d)

Sol. The highlighted word in the fourth part is incorrectly spelled as “behviour”. However, the precise spelling of the word in “behaviour” or “behavior” and it means the way in which one acts or conducts oneself, especially towards others. All the other words have been spelt correctly and are in appropriate grammatical syntax. Hence, option (d) is the most suitable answer choice.

S3. Ans. (b)

Sol. The highlighted word in the first part is incorrectly spelled as “faling”. However, the precise spelling of the word in “falling” and it means move from a higher to a lower level, typically rapidly and without control. All the other words have been spelt correctly and are in appropriate grammatical syntax. Hence, option (b) is the most suitable answer choice.

S4. Ans. (c)

Sol. The highlighted word in the third part is incorrectly spelled as “acentuated”. However, the precise spelling of the word in “accentuated” and it means make more noticeable or prominent. All the other words have been spelt correctly and are in appropriate grammatical syntax. Hence, option (c) is the most suitable answer choice.

Reprisal means an act of retaliation.

S5. Ans. (b)

Sol. The highlighted word in the second part is incorrectly spelled as “afirmmation”. However, the precise spelling of the word in “affirmation” and it means the action or process of affirming something. All the other words have been spelt correctly and are in appropriate grammatical syntax. Hence, option (b) is the most suitable answer choice.

S6. Ans. (e)

Sol. All the highlighted words of the sentence are correctly spelled and adhere to appropriate grammatical syntax. Since, none of the words require any corrections; option (e) becomes the most suitable answer choice.

S7. Ans. (a)

Sol. The highlighted word in the first part is incorrectly spelled as “spured”. However, the precise spelling of the word in “spurred” and it means to encourage an activity or development or make it happen faster. All the other words have been spelt correctly and are in appropriate grammatical syntax. Hence, option (a) is the most suitable answer choice.

S8. Ans. (b)

Sol. The highlighted word in the second part is incorrectly spelled as “accelrate”. However, the precise spelling of the word in “accelerate” and it means increase in rate, amount, or extent. All the other words have been spelt correctly and are in appropriate grammatical syntax. Hence, option (b) is the most suitable answer choice.

S9. Ans. (b)

Sol. The highlighted word in the second part is incorrectly spelled as “unevitable”. However, the precise spelling of the word in “inevitable” and it means certain to happen; unavoidable. All the other words have been spelt correctly and are in appropriate grammatical syntax. Hence, option (b) is the most suitable answer choice.

S10. Ans. (e)

Sol. All the highlighted words of the sentence are correctly spelled and adhere to appropriate grammatical syntax. Since, none of the words require any corrections; option (e) becomes the most suitable answer choice.

S11. Ans. (b)
Sol.
The error is in part (B) of the sentence. ‘Affect’ should be replaced by ‘effect’.

Effect-A change which is a result or consequence of an action or other cause.

Affect-have an effect on; make a difference to.

S12. Ans. (d)

Sol. The error is in part (d) of the sentence. ‘till’ should be replaced by ‘by’

“By” is used to describe an action or event that happens on or before a particular moment.

“Until” is used to describe a state or situation in the period of time up to a particular moment.

S13. Ans. (c)

Sol. The error is in part (c) of the sentence.

‘Focused’ should be replaced by ‘focusing’

“Have Been + Past Participle” also known as the Present Perfect Progressive or Present Perfect Continuous. It is used for an activity that started in the past and still continues to the present.

S14. Ans. (c)

Sol. The error is in part (c) of the sentence.

‘Manufacturer’ should be replaced by ‘manufacturers’

The phrase “one of the” is always a plural noun, whereas use of verbs as singular or plural will entirely depend upon the subject of the statement, i.e. singular verb for singular subject and plural verb for plural subject.

S15. Ans. (e)

Sol. There is no error in the given sentence. Therefore option (e) is the correct answer choice.

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